Is there any special reason why Christ was crucified during the passover?

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Well, actually part of this could be quite true. After all, Aryanism is steeped in Paganism and Isreal (the Ten Tribes) did fall into Pagan worship long before Judah. So to be a chosen people would set the apart, but the question would be, who’s chosen people are they?🤷 (I don’t think Aryans are either Israelites nor “Chosen” by God)
This response, is not only for your comments (above), but are for others before you (above). The whole Word of God came by way of the chosen people of God. They were anointed above all other people. Roman Catholicism is a religion of the gentiles. The scripture tells us, that first the gentiles will be saved, and then the jews/Israelites. Why would God use the gentiles to teach His chosen people? He never has, since the anointment of the Israelites. An assumption that He would do so, would also have to carry with it, that now the gentiles have been anointed above His original anointment. Does this make sense? 🙂
 
Was it just coincidence that Christ was crucified during the passover, or is there some special significance between the crucifixion and the timing of it?
Jesus ENDED the Passover Covenant and priestly Rite and replaced the Passover Covenant with the New Covenant in the Rite of Melchizadek.

He knew by establishing a New Covenant of Bread and Wine that Judas would betray Him and hand Him over to the corrupt Jewish authorities … the “keepers of the Covenant and priestly line”.

If you study the story of Noah you will see God made His covenant with Noah, his sons, AND the animal kingdom and demanded an accounting for any bloodshed (human and even animal).

Hence the Jewish priests had to slaughter animal in remembrance of the God’s covenant. Aaron’s lineage as well.

Jesus offered His mortal Body and Blood in establishing the New Covenant and this is why He said of Bread and Wine. “This is My Body and Blood of the new covenant”.

The Jewish priestly line was destroyed thereafter. Not by the Romans as historians would like you to believe, because sacrificing was not done exclusively at Jerusalem.

No. Jewish priests are gone because Jesus transformed the Covenant which is He Himself!

No priest could offer ANYTHING after Jesus gave His Life!
 
**Yes, All Israel shall be saved. But what about those Israelis who had become Budhists and christians, and later from christians they became Muslims? They are now residing in remote area away from Judae, how they will be gathered? and saved?

I have not understood your post about the gentiles etc. Must have been meaningful post. My reply to the topic is simple, as follows:

Jesus was a Jew and a Rabbi. The other Jewish leaders were afraid of his teaching and they wanted him killed by crucifixion. Even though his crime was not calling for crucifixion. The right punishment (For blasphemy) was stoning to death. But the leadership cried hoarse that Jesus should be crucified.

The feast of passover was near. It was some kind of important celebration. So the enemy leadership wanted to celebrate the death of Jesus before festival. What could be better timing than the festival of passover ! They could enjoy it all the more.

But it somehow went in favor of Jesus. It could all be a divine plan to save Jesus. I would not describe the rest of events,**
It is written, that there will come a day, when all Israel shall rejoice. This day will be when the Israelites from all corners of the earth shall return home. This will be even greater than the celebration of the passover.

We all assume, that this refers to the jewish peoples found throughout the world, that we know of. I believe that it refers to much more. I believe that there are Israelites, that we think, are gentiles. We are not even sure if the ‘known’ jews, are still recognized by God, as being His chosen people, due to improper marriages, etc. 🙂
 
Jesus ENDED the Passover Covenant and priestly Rite and replaced the Passover Covenant with the New Covenant in the Rite of Melchizadek.

He knew by establishing a New Covenant of Bread and Wine that Judas would betray Him and hand Him over to the corrupt Jewish authorities … the “keepers of the Covenant and priestly line”.

If you study the story of Noah you will see God made His covenant with Noah, his sons, AND the animal kingdom and demanded an accounting for any bloodshed (human and even animal).

Hence the Jewish priests had to slaughter animal in remembrance of the God’s covenant. Aaron’s lineage as well.

Jesus offered His mortal Body and Blood in establishing the New Covenant and this is why He said of Bread and Wine. “This is My Body and Blood of the new covenant”.

The Jewish priestly line was destroyed thereafter. Not by the Romans as historians would like you to believe, because sacrificing was not done exclusively at Jerusalem.

No. Jewish priests are gone because Jesus transformed the Covenant which is He Himself!

No priest could offer ANYTHING after Jesus gave His Life!
I wonder what you’re on. :rotfl: :rotfl:
 
Are you saying it is like some conspiracy to trick us Catholics in to being Jews, by celebrating the Passover every Easter?

Sorry I am kind of lost
 
Are you saying it is like some conspiracy to trick us Catholics in to being Jews, by celebrating the Passover every Easter?

Sorry I am kind of lost
There has to be a reason for the introduction of Protestantism, the halocaust of the jews, the major wars, etc. God is not simply ‘sitting on the sidelines’. He is working towards fulfilling the prophecies found in the scriptures. Are we ‘blind’ to the events that are happening around us? This is actually the larger question, that my question is trying to probe. 🙂
 
That God has worked alongside us to “make” things happen, like Jesus dying during Passover, so that His prophesies are fulfilled?

I am still lost :o

Are you a Catholic?
 
That God has worked alongside us to “make” things happen, like Jesus dying during Passover, so that His prophesies are fulfilled?

I am still lost :o

Are you a Catholic?
I guess this is all ‘over your head’. The prophecy concerning Jesus Christ was fulfilled 2,000 years ago. This is not the end of all prophecies. I have mentioned some others in my posts above. There are many more. Are we interpreting world events properly? Why the current economic/financial crisis? Why the introduction of the personal computers, or nuclear technology? Why the problems with energy, global warming, reduction of clean water supplies, etc., etc.,…the list goes on and on. We are warned to keep an eye out on the events of the world (disasters, earthquakes, wars and rumours of wars, etc.) Are we getting close to the coming of the antichrist?

Getting back to my original post, is it possible, that Protestantism came about, for the purpose of ‘grafting in’ the Israelites? Has God been fulfilling His prophecies, but we have not interpreted the events properly? Have we concentrated on the actual events, rather than the reason for them? 🙂
 
I guess this is all ‘over your head’. The prophecy concerning Jesus Christ was fulfilled 2,000 years ago. This is not the end of all prophecies. I have mentioned some others in my posts above. There are many more. Are we interpreting world events properly? Why the current economic/financial crisis? Why the introduction of the personal computers, or nuclear technology? Why the problems with energy, global warming, reduction of clean water supplies, etc., etc.,…the list goes on and on. We are warned to keep an eye out on the events of the world (disasters, earthquakes, wars and rumours of wars, etc.) Are we getting close to the coming of the antichrist?

Getting back to my original post, is it possible, that Protestantism came about, for the purpose of ‘grafting in’ the Israelites? Has God been fulfilling His prophecies, but we have not interpreted the events properly? Have we concentrated on the actual events, rather than the reason for them? 🙂
… and you are wondering if I’m on something … :eek:

I can see you are on “FUD” – Fear Uncertainty and Doom/Doubt
 
… and you are wondering if I’m on something … :eek:

I can see you are on “FUD” – Fear Uncertainty and Doom/Doubt
Is it not God’s Word that tells me to watch for the signs of the end-times? Does it not say, that we will return to the days of Noah? Take a look around you. We can’t be very far away. 🙂
 
Is it not God’s Word that tells me to watch for the signs of the end-times? Does it not say, that we will return to the days of Noah? Take a look around you. We can’t be very far away. 🙂
Well, if you believe Jewish Apocalypitc literature such as 1Enoch, the Assumption of Moses or the Book of Jubilees the time of Noah was full of Fallen Angels or “watchers” who taught women magic and bread with them creating beast that terrorized men and sometimes ate them. I don’t really see those type of things happening.
 
Well, if you believe Jewish Apocalypitc literature such as 1Enoch, the Assumption of Moses or the Book of Jubilees the time of Noah was full of Fallen Angels or “watchers” who taught women magic and bread with them creating beast that terrorized men and sometimes ate them. I don’t really see those type of things happening.
I was wondering who stole my bananas. 🙂
 
Was it just coincidence that Christ was crucified during the passover, or is there some special significance between the crucifixion and the timing of it?
I believe there is significance because Jesus is the lamb of God.

We now eat his flesh rather than a lamb.

His sacrifice was the final sacrifice and is the center of the new convenant.
 
I believe there is significance because Jesus is the lamb of God.

We now eat his flesh rather than a lamb.

His sacrifice was the final sacrifice and is the center of the new convenant.
I can’t believe the responses that I have received, in regards to this thread. From the point of view of a gentile, would the crucifixion and teachings of Christ, have any less value, if Christ was crucified at any other time during the year, other than the passover? The answer is no. The significance of the choice of timing, is all ‘Israel-related’. There is the symbolic side of this (death passing over the Israelite’s first born during the passover and the salvation through the crucifixion and resurrection whereby Christ conquered spiritual death that we may have salvation), but also, there may be a further purpose. If the lost tribes of Israel (lost to us) are still on earth (and I believe that they are), in order to be ‘grafted back in’, they would also have to celebrate the passover annually, because this is a commandment of God to them. If these lost tribes are not aware that they are in fact Israelites, they wouldn’t specifically celebrate the passover. Has God protected them, by having the two events ocurring at the same time? It is written, that God has ways to keep the righteous, righteous until the end. Is this one of them? Once they become a Christian, and celebrate the death and resurrection of Christ during the passover, have they in fact celebrated both? 🙂
 
I can’t believe the responses that I have received, in regards to this thread. From the point of view of a gentile, would the crucifixion and teachings of Christ, have any less value, if Christ was crucified at any other time during the year, other than the passover? The answer is no. The significance of the choice of timing, is all ‘Israel-related’. There is the symbolic side of this (death passing over the Israelite’s first born during the passover and the salvation through the crucifixion and resurrection whereby Christ conquered spiritual death that we may have salvation), but also, there may be a further purpose. If the lost tribes of Israel (lost to us) are still on earth (and I believe that they are), in order to be ‘grafted back in’, they would also have to celebrate the passover annually, because this is a commandment of God to them. If these lost tribes are not aware that they are in fact Israelites, they wouldn’t specifically celebrate the passover. Has God protected them, by having the two events ocurring at the same time? It is written, that God has ways to keep the righteous, righteous until the end. Is this one of them? Once they become a Christian, and celebrate the death and resurrection of Christ during the passover, have they in fact celebrated both? 🙂
This is what your first post should have said. Instead you play games with people and make them waste their time. I’ve seen it called: “Make the Catholics dance”. You remind me of a reincarnation of “OldScholar”, who was banned recently. For those interested, you should look at some of the other threads he just started. I was nice to you because I thought you were sincere, but now its clear you’re not. Btw, your answer was wrong, and far off the mark.
 
Here is what Pope Benedict observed in the homily that he preached during the Evening Mass of the Lord’s Supper in 2007.

Here it is in part:
According to John, Jesus died on the Cross at the very moment when the Passover lambs were being sacrificed in the temple. The death of Jesus and the sacrifice of the lambs coincided.
However, this means that he must have died the day before Easter and could not, therefore, have celebrated the Passover meal in person - this, at any rate, is how it appears.
…Jesus truly shed his blood on the eve of Easter at the time of the immolation of the lambs.
In all likelihood, however, he celebrated the Passover with his disciples in accordance with the Qumran calendar, hence, at least one day earlier; he celebrated it without a lamb, like the Qumran community which did not recognize Herod’s temple and was waiting for the new temple.
Consequently, Jesus celebrated the Passover without a lamb - no, not without a lamb: instead of the lamb he gave himself, his Body and his Blood. Thus, he anticipated his death in a manner consistent with his words: “No one takes [my life] from me, but I lay it down of my own accord” (Jn 10: 18).
At the time when he offered his Body and his Blood to the disciples, he was truly fulfilling this affirmation. He himself offered his own life. Only in this way did the ancient Passover acquire its true meaning.
In his Eucharistic catecheses, St John Chrysostom once wrote: Moses, what are you saying? Does the blood of a lamb purify men and women? Does it save them from death? How can the blood of an animal purify people, save people or have power over death? In fact, Chrysostom continues, the immolation of the lamb could be a merely symbolic act, hence, the expression of expectation and hope in One who could accomplish what the sacrifice of an animal was incapable of accomplishing.
The Lamb and Temple
Jesus celebrated the Passover without a lamb and without a temple; yet, not without a lamb and not without a temple. He himself was the awaited Lamb, the true Lamb, just as John the Baptist had foretold at the beginning of Jesus’ public ministry: “Behold, the Lamb of God, who takes away the sin of the world!” (Jn 1: 29).
And he himself was the true Temple, the living Temple where God dwells and where we can encounter God and worship him. His Blood, the love of the One who is both Son of God and true man, one of us, is the Blood that can save. His love, that love in which he gave himself freely for us, is what saves us. The nostalgic, in a certain sense, ineffectual gesture which was the sacrifice of an innocent and perfect lamb, found a response in the One who for our sake became at the same time Lamb and Temple.
As someone else posted earlier, the Passover was the initial sacrifice. It prefigures the Sacrifice of the True Lamb of God, Jesus, the Eternal Son of the Father. That is why the Crucifixion had to happen during the Passover because the Real Passover Lamb had to be immolated at that time.
 
This response, is not only for your comments (above), but are for others before you (above). The whole Word of God came by way of the chosen people of God. They were anointed above all other people. Roman Catholicism is a religion of the gentiles. The scripture tells us, that first the gentiles will be saved, and then the jews/Israelites. Why would God use the gentiles to teach His chosen people? He never has, since the anointment of the Israelites. An assumption that He would do so, would also have to carry with it, that now the gentiles have been anointed above His original anointment. Does this make sense? 🙂
I’m quite surprised nobody has responded to this.

You my friend are WRONG. Let me explain. For the entirety of Christ’s ministry he taught ONLY to the Jews. There are few occasion in which Jesus went outside his mission and one such was when a Gentile woman asked him to heal her daughter, to which Jesus responded “Let the children first be filled (refering to the Jews): for it is not meet to take the children’s bread, and to cast it unto the dogs” In response the woman replies “Yes, Lord, yet the dogs under the table eat of the children’s crumbs.” the end result was that the woman’s daughter was healed.

It wasn’t until 3 1/2 years, in fulfillment of prophecy, that the Gospel was given to the Gentiles. Your claim that the Gospel was to go to the Gentiles first is not scriptural.
 
Was it just coincidence that Christ was crucified during the passover, or is there some special significance between the crucifixion and the timing of it?
The Jew did not want Jesus to appear victoriously such as when He entered Jerusalem in a donkey almost a week ago. During Passover, many Jewish all around the Mediteranian sea went back to Jerusalem for a great passover day. It would be an unstoppable event if Jesus made miracles in front of thousands of Jews not only living in Jerusalem, but in front of the Jews living abroad as well.

The Jewish leader at that time also afraid, when Jesus in front of thousands of Jews made miracle, and declare Himself as a new king, then they will be overthrown from their own positions, either by the Roman, and/or by their own people.

So, according to them, Jesus must be eliminated before the passover day. “Let one man die for the sake of the whole nation” according to Kayafas, the high priest at that time. The difference is “I die for my belief, according to Jesus” and “You die for my belief, according to Kayafas, followed by most other leaders of the world.”
 
I can’t believe the responses that I have received, in regards to this thread. From the point of view of a gentile, would the crucifixion and teachings of Christ, have any less value, if Christ was crucified at any other time during the year, other than the passover? The answer is no. The significance of the choice of timing, is all ‘Israel-related’. There is the symbolic side of this (death passing over the Israelite’s first born during the passover and the salvation through the crucifixion and resurrection whereby Christ conquered spiritual death that we may have salvation), but also, there may be a further purpose. If the lost tribes of Israel (lost to us) are still on earth (and I believe that they are), in order to be ‘grafted back in’, they would also have to celebrate the passover annually, because this is a commandment of God to them. If these lost tribes are not aware that they are in fact Israelites, they wouldn’t specifically celebrate the passover. Has God protected them, by having the two events ocurring at the same time? It is written, that God has ways to keep the righteous, righteous until the end. Is this one of them? Once they become a Christian, and celebrate the death and resurrection of Christ during the passover, have they in fact celebrated both? 🙂
My understanding of things is that there aren’t any “lost tribes” of Israel. During the divided kingdom Israelites who were offended by the pagan leadership of all their kings in the northern kingdom trickled down to the southern kingdom to Judea. So by the time the Assyrians destroyed the northern kindom all of the tribes were represented in the southern kingdom though most likely in minority. Those taken away by the Assyrians would have taken on pagan customs and become gentile. Rather than converting the gentiles to Judaism.
 
I can’t believe the responses that I have received, in regards to this thread. From the point of view of a gentile, would the crucifixion and teachings of Christ, have any less value, if Christ was crucified at any other time during the year, other than the passover? The answer is no. The significance of the choice of timing, is all ‘Israel-related’. There is the symbolic side of this (death passing over the Israelite’s first born during the passover and the salvation through the crucifixion and resurrection whereby Christ conquered spiritual death that we may have salvation), but also, there may be a further purpose. If the lost tribes of Israel (lost to us) are still on earth (and I believe that they are), in order to be ‘grafted back in’, they would also have to celebrate the passover annually, because this is a commandment of God to them. If these lost tribes are not aware that they are in fact Israelites, they wouldn’t specifically celebrate the passover. Has God protected them, by having the two events ocurring at the same time? It is written, that God has ways to keep the righteous, righteous until the end. Is this one of them? Once they become a Christian, and celebrate the death and resurrection of Christ during the passover, have they in fact celebrated both? 🙂
The Jews are the chosen people of God.

Jesus was a Jew.

The apostles were Jews.

Why would it surprise you that God would bring the New Covenant through the old?
 
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