J
joe370
Guest
RedBert, you responded to my question: Is the bible, authoritatively speaking, the self-interpreted Word of God, with something totally unrelated. You said:
you offer a false dilemma. The principle “Scripture interprets Scripture” of hermeneutics (The Science and Art of Biblical Interpretation) ** is just one among many helpful principles
Individual passages of Scripture must always be in harmony with Scripture as a whole. The biblical interpreter must keep in mind that all of Scripture — though communicated through various human instruments — has a single Author (God). And, of course, God does not contradict Himself.
**Agreed! **
It is right to say that no passage will ultimately contradict the rest of the canon, for there is a divinely inspired unity to the Bible.
Is there a divinely inspired unity to the myriad non-Catholic churches? No! There should be if you believe that the holy spirit is the divine guide, as per the bible. Why would the holy spirit be responsible for divinely inspired unity to the Bible, which is the protestants sole authority, and yet allow the protestants sole authority to be the cause of all the disunity we see in the protestant world? He wouldn’t; he didn’t.
However, this does not mean that we should neglect near context interpretation in favor of distant context interpretation.
OK…
What a writer means by a word or phrase should be evaluated in light of the sentence, the paragraph, the section, the book, the other books by the same writer, the other books from that time period, the other books in that “Testament” and the other books in the Bible – in that order! Like concentric circles around the bull’s-eye, the closer the context, the more weight we should give it. So a term used in a letter by Paul does not automatically mean the same as that term in Matthew or John or Ezekiel.
OK…
One exception to this hierarchy of correlation would be to go to a text evidently in the thoughts of the author prior to others that may technically be “closer contexts” but were unknown to the author. For example, when an NT writer is obviously leaning on an OT passage, that passage may be technically the most distant context, but it actually may be more helpful than another NT writer. So I’d look more carefully at the prophet Paul is quoting than Matthew’s use of the same term. We should correlate carefully.
**Couldn’t agree more; you are right. Now, back to my question:
Is the bible, authoritatively speaking, the self-interpreted Word of God?
This is a simple question…
****
you offer a false dilemma. The principle “Scripture interprets Scripture” of hermeneutics (The Science and Art of Biblical Interpretation) ** is just one among many helpful principles
Individual passages of Scripture must always be in harmony with Scripture as a whole. The biblical interpreter must keep in mind that all of Scripture — though communicated through various human instruments — has a single Author (God). And, of course, God does not contradict Himself.
**Agreed! **
It is right to say that no passage will ultimately contradict the rest of the canon, for there is a divinely inspired unity to the Bible.
Is there a divinely inspired unity to the myriad non-Catholic churches? No! There should be if you believe that the holy spirit is the divine guide, as per the bible. Why would the holy spirit be responsible for divinely inspired unity to the Bible, which is the protestants sole authority, and yet allow the protestants sole authority to be the cause of all the disunity we see in the protestant world? He wouldn’t; he didn’t.
However, this does not mean that we should neglect near context interpretation in favor of distant context interpretation.
OK…
What a writer means by a word or phrase should be evaluated in light of the sentence, the paragraph, the section, the book, the other books by the same writer, the other books from that time period, the other books in that “Testament” and the other books in the Bible – in that order! Like concentric circles around the bull’s-eye, the closer the context, the more weight we should give it. So a term used in a letter by Paul does not automatically mean the same as that term in Matthew or John or Ezekiel.
OK…
One exception to this hierarchy of correlation would be to go to a text evidently in the thoughts of the author prior to others that may technically be “closer contexts” but were unknown to the author. For example, when an NT writer is obviously leaning on an OT passage, that passage may be technically the most distant context, but it actually may be more helpful than another NT writer. So I’d look more carefully at the prophet Paul is quoting than Matthew’s use of the same term. We should correlate carefully.
**Couldn’t agree more; you are right. Now, back to my question:
Is the bible, authoritatively speaking, the self-interpreted Word of God?
This is a simple question…