It's NOT in the Bible, okay?

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so here is a massive debate here at

bringyou.to/apologetics/a60.htm

AND another featuring your own Gerald Matatics,“currently a full time staff apologist for Catholic Answers”

reformed.org/webfiles/antithesis/index.html?mainframe=/webfiles/antithesis/v1n5/ant_v1n5_issue.html

These four different debaters can argue either side better than most of us can,
and I would guess that all of us has the the ability to copy and paste point and counter- point until the the Second Coming.

So what.

Your aren’t going to change my mind and I am not going to change yours.​

RE: the OP.

After close to a million words (between the two debates) defending the Sola Scripture if find it somewhat disingenuous to state “I have read the Bible (all 73 books of it!) many times and have ** yet to find anything that supports this idea”**

and here are another 50 million words
monergism.com/directory/link_category/Five-Solas/Sola-Scriptura/

**I have read (and studied) the Bible also , and I can see how others can reach a conclusion different than mine on many doctrins.

But it would be one thing to say I don’t agree with someone’s view and I quite another to say " I have …yet to find anything that supports this idea" ** …And that is what the OP claimed
And all of THAT just vindicates my own, and the Church’s, contention:
No, God made man’s mind so well that man can twist Scripture to mean whatever he wants it.

So also our beloved brother Paul wrote to you according to the wisdom given him, speaking of this as he does in all his letters. There are some things in them hard to understand, which the ignorant and unstable twist to their own destruction, as they do the other scriptures. You therefore, beloved, knowing this beforehand, beware lest you be carried away with the error of lawless men and lose your own stability. (2 Peter 3:15-17)
 
yankee, you said:

Jesus expected the people of His day to interpret the Scriptures.He never once said go to the synagogue and have the rabbi interpret. He used such terms as “search the Scriptures” (John 5:39), “have you not read?” (Matt. 12:3; 12:5; 19:4; 21:16,42; 22:31), “is it not written in your law?” (John 10:34; Luke 10:26). This shows that the people were obligated to read and interpret the Scriptures.

**Old testament scriptures at this particular juncture. Agreed.
**

Furthermore, He quoted the Scriptures as the final source of authority (Matt. 22:29-32; Mark 7:9-13) and He always showed the consequences of failing to do so, e.g., “You err, not knowing the Scriptures…” (Matt. 22:29), “…Thus making void the word of God through your tradition” (Mark 7:13). When asked: What is Truth, Jesus said: Thy Word is Truth.

**All old testament quotes, and nowhere does Jesus say that the old testament is final source of authority. Show me in the NT where Jesus refers to the bible as the final source of authority. Paul tells us to adhere to tradition as well, only these traditions are apostolic.
**

After the church was established, the apostles required that people make a private interpretation of Scripture (Acts 9:22; 18:28) and that’s exactly what they did. (Acts 17:11; 2 Tim. 3:15).

**Not from the NT scriptures. For example: the passage, “For he vigorously refuted the Jews in public debate, proving from the Scriptures that Jesus was the Christ,” is a reference to the OT. just as the others are. He was showing them how Jesus fulfilled the old testament prophecies.

Private interpretation is a no-no:

“Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost.”
**

When churches began to be established as a result of the preaching of God’s Word and when the New Testament Scriptures began to be written, never in one instance did the apostles and prophets declare that private interpretation must now cease because the church was not the official interpreter of the Scriptures.

**Yes they did. If not the church then who?
**

They did not direct the people to an infallible interpreter of the Word, but to the Word itself.

**You are mistake. Sola scriptura could not have worked for the first 400 years of Christianity. Not one person outside the church, had a bound codified bible; the catholic church didn’t even have a bound codified bible until 397 AD.
**

Christ never promised infallibility to any church. The infant churches already had false teachers/doctrines creeping in.

**Christ never promised infallibility to any church, just the church built by God, if in fact you believe that the holy spirit (forever guiding Jesus’ church) - is infallible!
**

Joe, let me ask you this: Why does the roman catholic church have unanimous interpretation on only a handful of Scripture passages?

**Sure, I will answer your questions even though you ignore most of mine.
**

**Please provide the passages that the CC is not unanimous on. **

There isn’t even unanimous consent among the church fathers.

**Sure, some of the church fathers differed in opinion but when they convened as a council, they always settled the matter, unlike what we see in the protestant maelstrom.
**
 
Private interpretation is a no-no:

“Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost.”

Sure, some of the church fathers differed in opinion but when they convened as a council, they always settled the matter, unlike what we see in the protestant maelstrom.
Joe, I notice a certain ambiguity in your text.
(My motive is to clarify meaning in support of what you post)
The Church teaches private interpretation, as long as one follows rules:
The 2 Vatican Council indicates 3 criteria for interpreting Scripture in accordance with the Spirit who inspired it:
  1. Be especially attentive to content and unity of the whole Scripture;
  2. Read the Scripture within the living Tradition of the whole Church and
  3. Be attentive to maintain cohesion of faith within the whole plan of Revelation.
(2 Vatican Council, Dei Verbum)
 
**The church built by Christ, which, by the turn of the 1st century adopted the name Catholic, with good reason. Protestants state that one of the protestant churches started at Pentecost…so which protestant church was Paul and Jesus correcting? **

Paul and Jesus (thru John) used the written Word to correct the churches.

**Yup, but only the OT. The 27 books of the NT did not exist.
**

First off, as others have already pointed out on here, the protestant churches are not a new faith. They went back to the beginning; the Holy Scriptures, and back to the simple teachings of Jesus Christ. The roman catholic church has added to the scriptures over the centuries that we can no longer see these teachings of God’s word. What you see instead are the rituals and traditions that have been piled up on top of God’s Word over the years.

What many on here fail to realize is that there were many christian groups since the beginning who met to worship and break bread. Some had names, others did not.They had unity in their belief in Christ as Savior and being baptized in Him. They spread the Gospel. The RCC has clearly forgotten about these original Jewish Christians. Also, the Baptist did not come out of the Reformation, so they are not a Protestant faith. They are biblical Christianity as they adhere to the teachings of Jesus and the Bible. Some of these original groups of Christians now make up the Baptist faith. They were faithful to the teachings of Jesus and the apostles such as preaching the Gospel of Christ, baptism by immersion, etc.

Its one thing to claim the RCC started at Pentecost. All churches make that claim. But proving that the RCC, as we know it today, with its complex hierarchy, massive wealth, power and many traditions, some of which cannot be traced back to the apostles, existed in the 1st century is quite another thing. Read books on the history of Christianity.

As for Jesus and the apostles using the written word which were the OT and not the NT is irrelevant. Jesus said God’s word is Truth. The Holy Spirit authored the NT. Paul’s epistles were passed around and read in the churches. They were considered scripture. Even Peter makes this claim. Paul said in 1 Cor. 14:37: “If any man think himself to be a prophet, or spiritual, let him acknowledge that the things that I write unto you are the commandments of the Lord.” What was taught orally by the apostles, including Paul, was later written down for us today in the Holy Scriptures.
 
Quoted from joe370
All old testament quotes, and nowhere does Jesus say that the old testament is final source of authority. Show me in the NT where Jesus refers to the bible as the final source of authority. Paul tells us to adhere to tradition as well, only these traditions are apostolic.
Joe, the new testament is also the word of God is it not? Is not the Holy Spirit the author of it? Did not Jesus say when asked what is truth, that: They word is Truth. Where can we find absolute Truth apart from God and the very writings that are “God-breathed”? The entire Holy Scriptures is God’s word to mankind. It has unity throughout. Complete harmony. We cannot say this about early church fathers and yet, the RC relies heavily on these men for support.

Where are the traditions Paul spoke about in 2 Thess chapters 2 and 3? Please read 2 Thess. 3:14. Paul said: “if any man obey not our word by this epistle…” Here we see that what Paul taught orally was eventually written down and enclosed in our NT Scriptures.
Not from the NT scriptures. For example: the passage, “For he vigorously refuted the Jews in public debate, proving from the Scriptures that Jesus was the Christ,” is a reference to the OT. just as the others are. He was showing them how Jesus fulfilled the old testament prophecies.
Joe, the very words that Jesus spoke are scripture. Jesus Christ is the Word. His teachings were written down for us. You keep making a distinction between old and new testament but every jot and tittle is God’s Word. And now you’re asking for proof that Jesus believed the very Word of God has absolute authority!?

When churches began to be established as a result of the preaching of God’s Word and when the New Testament Scriptures began to be written, never in one instance did the apostles and prophets declare that private interpretation must now cease because the church was now the official interpreter of the Scriptures.
Yes they did. If not the church then who?
Yes they did? Please provide proof Joe. If not the church, then who?! C’mon Joe are you even reading what I write? Jesus told ** individuals** to read the scriptures. If he said this about the OT, why do you believe He would do it differently concerning the NT?
You are mistake. Sola scriptura could not have worked for the first 400 years of Christianity. Not one person outside the church, had a bound codified bible; the catholic church didn’t even have a bound codified bible until 397 AD.
Joe, again, what the apostles taught orally were later written down.
Sure, I will answer your questions even though you ignore most of mine.
But you haven’t answered my questions Joe. Instead you just ask more questions…😉
Please provide the passages that the CC is not unanimous on.
The RCC is only unanimous on 7 passages.
Sure, some of the church fathers differed in opinion but when they convened as a council, they always settled the matter, unlike what we see in the protestant maelstrom.
Please show proof of this Joe. Opinions are a dome a dozen. The church fathers often contradicted one another. We find more disagreements the further we get from the apostolic age. I recommend you buy the collection of writings from the early church fathers. The book I have is over 700 pages. For every 3 that agree, we can find 3 others that do not.
 
,
Private interpretation is a no-no:

“Understanding this first, that no prophecy of scripture is made by private interpretation. For prophecy came not by the will of man at any time: but the holy men of God spoke, inspired by the Holy Ghost.”
The RCC tries to persuade people that the Bible is too difficult to understand by oneself. Interpretation is not for the common people but for the wise and intelligent leaders of the Church alone. “The task of giving an authentic interpretation of the Word of God…has been entrusted to the living teaching office of the Church alone…This means that the task of interpretation has been entrusted to the bishops in communion with the successor of Peter, the Bishop of Rome” (Catechism, paragraph 85). With one hand the RCC gives the Bible to the people, and with the other hand, it takes it away!

It was Protestants, men like Wycliffe, Tyndale and Luther, who first gave the Bible in the common language of the people, at the same time when the Roman authorities were busy burning every copy of the Bible they could lay their hands on. Read the books on christian history.

“Knowing this first, that no prophecy of Scripture is of any private interpretation, for prophecy never came by the will of man, but holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit” (2 Peter 1:20-21).

The verb “is” in verse 20 is the translation of the word ‘ginomai’ which according to Strong’s Lexicon means, “to cause to be, to become, come into being.” Thus the sense of this verse is this: “no prophecy of Scripture ‘came into being’ by any private interpretation.” Peter is speaking about the process by which the Scriptures came into being; their very origin, and ** not about the understanding of Scripture already given**.

Peter says that no scripture came into being by ‘private interpretation’ - that is by one’s own explanation. Whom does he have in mind? Is it the reader? Or the men who wrote the Scriptures? Since Peter is speaking about the origin of Scripture, he is talking about the prophets themselves. In other words, Peter is saying that the Scriptures did not originate in the prophets’ own understanding. This is confirmed when we read the following verse since the apostle Peter gives the reason why scripture did not come into being of the prophets’ own understanding, “For prophecy never came by the will of man.” The prophets did not invent the scriptures. They were God’s instruments to write His Word: “…holy men of God spoke as they were moved by the Holy Spirit.”
 
Getting back to the OP.
Scripture clearly has said that everything is not in the Bible, but what is not therin will be revealed by the Holy Spirit over time. It would be a very strange thing indeed for GOD to have given us an inerrant book without first giving us an infallible interpreter for it. Who has the authority to decide the one true meaning of Holy Scripture?
Also, when it comes to current modern day dilemas, the protestant sector of Christianity is all over the map of what TRUTH is. Where in Scripture is the verse which gives us moral guidance on: gay marriage, homosexual relations, abortion, women ordination, divorce, cloning, on and on and on…
If you rely on Scripture Alone you are left with the mess we currently see in the Protestant world.
Get a bird’s eye view, and you’ll see it clearly.
 
Getting back to the OP.
It would be a very strange thing indeed for GOD to have given us an inerrant book without first giving us an for it. Who has the authority to decide the one true meaning of Holy Scripture?
.
Are the Hebrew Scriptures ( the Old Testament) an inerrant book
so what infallible interpreter did the Jews use for the infallible Hebrew Scriptures?
 
Getting back to the OP.
Where in Scripture is the verse which gives us moral guidance on: gay marriage, homosexual relations, abortion, women ordination, divorce, cloning, on and on and on…
If you rely on Scripture Alone you are left with the mess we currently see in the Protestant world.
Get a bird’s eye view, and you’ll see it clearly.
you are confusing many beliefs under one roof vs many beliefs under different roofs:

survey after survey show a wide diversity of beliefs among Church going Catholics on doctrine and moral issues
 
survey after survey show a wide diversity of beliefs among Church going Catholics on doctrine and moral issues
That doesn’t equate to the Catholic Church teaching different sets of doctrines. The Church is against contraception, yet the majority of Catholics use it.
 
So you are saying that Catholics don’t want to do the work of Bible Study?
**the SOURCE is from Catholic.com **

catholic.com/thisrock/2004/0402fea3.asp
the qoutes are…

My guess is that many Catholics simply don’t want to do the work. They are content to let Mother Church spoon-feed them. (They want to remain “babes in Christ” who drink “milk,” as Paul says.)

But the “solution” of many Catholics—to not read the Bible at all so as to not be “confused” or “led astray”—is lamentable, “kindergarten Christianity” laziness. The same people who are guilty of this shortcoming usually find plenty of time to devote to the “study” of sports, politics, their latest boyfriend or girlfriend, their lawns and gardens, and so on



and also
au.christiantoday.com/article/luther-rome-and-the-bible/5255.htm

Only one in four Italians had read a passage from the Bible in the past year the survey revealed, compared to three out of four in the USA. Few even knew whether or not the Gospels were part of the Bible. Philosophy graduates confused Paul with Moses and thought that Jesus wrote Genesis, according to the survey.,
 
First off, as others have already pointed out on here, the protestant churches are not a new faith. They went back to the beginning; the Holy Scriptures, and back to the simple teachings of Jesus Christ. The roman catholic church has added to the scriptures over the centuries that we can no longer see these teachings of God’s word. What you see instead are the rituals and traditions that have been piled up on top of God’s Word over the years. What many on here fail to realize is that there were many christian groups since the beginning who met to worship and break bread. Some had names, others did not. They had unity in their belief in Christ as Savior and being baptized in Him. They spread the Gospel. The RCC has clearly forgotten about these original Jewish Christians. Also, the Baptist did not come out of the Reformation, so they are not a Protestant faith. They are biblical Christianity as they adhere to the teachings of Jesus and the Bible. Some of these original groups of Christians now make up the Baptist faith. They were faithful to the teachings of Jesus and the apostles such as preaching the Gospel of Christ, baptism by immersion, etc.
What sort of historical records do we have of this underground faith? What were their doctrines which revealed the simple teaching of Christ, and which helped expose Catholicism for the man-made heresy that you claim it is? In other words, how are you able to show us, other than your opinion, that all of this Christian history actually took place? You say some of these groups had names…what were some of the names? You say Baptists adhere to the teachings of Jesus and the Bible, and this opinion somehow proves they had their origins from the very beginning? Not very compelling.
yankee drifter:
Its one thing to claim the RCC started at Pentecost. All churches make that claim. But proving that the RCC, as we know it today, with its complex hierarchy, massive wealth, power and many traditions, some of which cannot be traced back to the apostles, existed in the 1st century is quite another thing. Read books on the history of Christianity.
Help me understand this “massive wealth” and “massive power” today. And what books on the history of Christianity would you like us to read? Can you be more specific?
yankee drifter:
when the New Testament Scriptures began to be written, never in one instance did the apostles and prophets declare that private interpretation must now cease because the church was now the official interpreter of the Scriptures.
This statement erroneously presupposes that private interpretation was once acceptable. It never was. But this is because you have to understand what is meant by “private”. See below.
yankee drifter:
The RCC tries to persuade people that the Bible is too difficult to understand by oneself. Interpretation is not for the common people but for the wise and intelligent leaders of the Church alone. “The task of giving an authentic interpretation of the Word of God…has been entrusted to the living teaching office of the Church alone…This means that the task of interpretation has been entrusted to the bishops in communion with the successor of Peter, the Bishop of Rome” (Catechism, paragraph 85). With one hand the RCC gives the Bible to the people, and with the other hand, it takes it away!
When the Church speaks of it’s Christ-given authority to interpret the Word of God, they are speaking about 2 specific things…the ENTIRE Word of God, which consists of Christ’s authentic teaching in both written form and handed-down form…and they are speaking of interpretation regarding the deposit of faith, those specific things necessary for our faith and salvation. The Church allows for the faithful to read and interpret Scripture, just not privately. By privately, the Church means, outside of the revealed deposit of faith. We are not to define dogma or doctrine, nor contradict that which is defined as such by the Church, we are not to establish morals as revealed within this deposit. We are, rather, allowed (and encouraged) to undertake careful interpretation of Scripture with the purpose of allowing the Spirit to illuminate God’s words in a way that relates to our specific states in life (for each of us is different and on a unique journey in the faith). In this way, we interpret passages and stories or parables to allow the Spirit to convict our hearts, show us Christ and His life, guide us in our daily struggles and triumphs. So, interpretation is allowable for all, but not outside the framework of Christ’s One Church, within which He deposited the true faith.
 
Here’s your premise in defense of Sola Scriptura not being stated in the Bible:
It is not required of Scripture to have a statement to the effect, “The Bible alone is to be used for all spiritual truth,” in order for sola scriptura to be true.
And here is your justification of that premise:
Many doctrines in the Bible are not clearly stated, yet they are believed and taught by the church. For example, there is no statement in the Bible that says there is a Trinity, or that Jesus has two natures (God and man), or that the Holy Spirit is the third person in the Godhead. Yet, each of the statements is considered true doctrine within Christianity, being derived from biblical references.
Unfortunately your argument in support of this premise is invalid. The doctrine of the Trinity, and the related doctrines which you mention, all required the authority of the Magisterium to determine and definitively proclaim them as the Truth. This is so because Scripture alone, is capable of being interpreted; has been interpreted and continues to be interpreted in a manner that denies these truths. In short: contradictory “truths” are “derived from biblical references” - some are true some are not. The fact of the matter is that apart from the authority of the Church to recognize and proclaim these particular truths we would not know them to be true. This reality invalidates your having derived the following conclusion based upon that invalid premise:
So, for the Catholic to require the Protestant to supply chapter and verse to prove Sola Scriptura is valid, is not necessarily consistent with biblical exegetical principles, of which they themselves approve when examining such doctrines as the Trinity, the hypostatic union, etc.
In order to validate this conclusion you will need to find another reason for us to accept your original premise. Best go back to the drawing board. Your foundational argument is invalid. I wont be holding my breath! 😉

Blessings!
 
**the SOURCE is from Catholic.com **

catholic.com/thisrock/2004/0402fea3.asp
the qoutes are…

My guess is that many Catholics simply don’t want to do the work. They are content to let Mother Church spoon-feed them. (They want to remain “babes in Christ” who drink “milk,” as Paul says.)

But the “solution” of many Catholics—to not read the Bible at all so as to not be “confused” or “led astray”—is lamentable, “kindergarten Christianity” laziness. The same people who are guilty of this shortcoming usually find plenty of time to devote to the “study” of sports, politics, their latest boyfriend or girlfriend, their lawns and gardens, and so on



and also
au.christiantoday.com/article/luther-rome-and-the-bible/5255.htm

Only one in four Italians had read a passage from the Bible in the past year the survey revealed, compared to three out of four in the USA. Few even knew whether or not the Gospels were part of the Bible. Philosophy graduates confused Paul with Moses and thought that Jesus wrote Genesis, according to the survey.,
See what I mean in my previous post? For if you just completed what you quoted previously:

Only one in four Italians had read a passage from the Bible in the past year, the survey revealed, compared to three out of four in the USA. Few even knew whether or not the Gospels were part of the Bible. Philosophy graduates confused Paul with Moses and thought that Jesus wrote Genesis, according to the survey. This despite the encouragement of the Second Vatican Council (1962-65) for the faithful to rediscover Scripture as the primary source of spiritual life.
…Now, when we say, as joe37 says, that the Church cannot “get it wrong,” he means that the Church Magisterium, that is, the Catholic Church’s teaching authority, cannot get wrong the definition and interpretation of doctrine. There will always be Christians who will fail in the practice of Church doctrine, and even deny them. When that happens, it is the duty of the Catholic Church’s Magisterium in the form of the bishops of the Church in union with the Pope to correct these errors.
 
you are confusing many beliefs under one roof vs many beliefs under different roofs:

survey after survey show a wide diversity of beliefs among Church going Catholics on doctrine and moral issues
Can you explain which church today best fulfills Christ’s intention in founding His Church and which church today is closest to holding to the doctrines found in the Early Church of the first few centuries?
If the the Catholic Church is wrong, then who is right? Rather than a Christianity that defines itself by what it is not, what are the things that make your Protestant group sufficient in itself?
 
Can you explain which church today best fulfills Christ’s intention in founding His Church and which church today is closest to holding to the doctrines found in the Early Church of the first few centuries?
If the the Catholic Church is wrong, then who is right? Rather than a Christianity that defines itself by what it is not, what are the things that make your Protestant group sufficient in itself?
We no longer have True churches with ALL True doctrines
We do have True Churches with some false docrines and
we have false Churches with some true docrtines.
 
We no longer have True churches with ALL True doctrines
We do have True Churches with some false docrines and
we have false Churches with some true docrtines.
So much for Matthew 16:18 “I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it."

And you are bible only?
 
So much for Matthew 16:18 “I also say to you that you are Peter, and upon this rock I will build My church; and the gates of Hades will not overpower it."

And you are bible only?
I wonder how the Jews managed with their scripture before the Catholic Church ?
 
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