You happen to have the actual Vatican statement? Not nit picking just curious.
Nope, don’t have the original. But I do have two sources for the quote, so I’m okay with it.
I believe the idea of “Chattel Slavery” (Slaves being less than human) has always been condemned by the Church. Slaves treated as human beings with dignity and rights has not been. Its actually even biblical. As far as infallibility is concerned I don’t think there has every been an infallible statement on slavery.
Now we get to the crux of the matter. Essentially you’re defining Catholic teachings that have changed as being non-infallibly taught. Because, after all, if they change they can’t have been infallible in the first place.
Divorce not allowed. You argue (correct me if I’m wrong) that because the Church seems to give out annulments like candy the teaching on divorce has changed.
EXACTLY. The Church has in its wisdom decided that when two people come before God and witnesses and pledge themselves to each other for life, it isn’t always dissoluble. This is a change from the previous position that such vows were indissoluble.
I argue that an annulment is a statement that the couple was never married. The teaching of the Church is that Marriage is forever. Period. Sometimes for certain reasons (lack of full consent, no consummation, Catholics not married in the Catholic Church) a marriage never happened in the first place. I argue this is infallible.
And I argue that this is a rationalization. It starts from the a priori assumption that the teaching on Matrimony being forever is infallible, and thus can never change. So when it becomes necesssary to chnage the teaching for Pastoral reasons (rember Christ said “The Law was made for Man, Man wasn’t made for the Law”) some kind of loop-hole or rationalization must be found to circumvent it.
In this case the CHurch has decalred that in cases of Annulment, no actual marriage existed. I don’t have a problem with that, whatevere rationalization gets them through the day.
Usary - definitions, definitions. There is question about whether or not it is even an infallible doctrine. Then the question on what the definition of Usary comes to play.
It’s only because the teaching has changed that we’re parsing words about the definition of Usary (or Slavery for that matter, or even come to think of it Marriage). To my mind, for infallibility to exist at all there can’t be non-infallible teachings, because then we’re reduced to squabbling about which teachings are or aren’t infallible.
Artificial Contraception- You say (again correct me if I’m wrong, I don’t want to put words in your mouth) since the church allows NFP that is a change in the stance of Contraception so the other shoe of the pill is right around the corner.
In effect yes, after more than a thousand years of teahcing that Sex was solely for procreation (with the pleasure and unitive effects thrown in by God as a kind of “bribe”) now the Church teaches that sex also has Unitive fuction for couples.
After more than a thousand years of teaching that attempting to have sex without getting pregnant was sinful they have now decided that NFP is allowed for “grave” reasons.
Another pair of rationalizations intended to mask the fact that teaching has changed. Note, I don’t disagree with the changes. Personally, I feel the Church has traditionally gotten frustrated by her inability to see in her people’s hearts where all sinfulness lies, so they proscribe acts which are overt and easily observable instead of motivations which aren’t.
I don’t believe couples should avoid Children because they enjoy spending weekends in Aspen, or because mommy doesn’t want stretch marks, or for a whole host of selfish reasons. I believe there are couples using ABC for good reasons just like there are couples using NFP for bad ones.
I argue it has been infallible stated Artificial Contraception is intrinsically evil. NFP is permit because there is no evil in abstinence and prudence.
On this we disagree. I hope you would concede that there hasn’t been any EXPLICILTY INFALLIBLE statement on ABC.
I know an argument can be made that the teaching is infallible through the ordinary magesterium, but I don’t find that compelling.
As far as I know, the only things explicitly defined as infallible are The Immaculate Conception and The Assumption. Everything else is open to debate.
In point of fact I’m not sure about Papal Infallibility, but since it has only beeen invoked for these two things it really isn’t an issue for me.