T
Tom
Guest
Correct, and that is all it implies. It doesn’t imply what happened after, just what didn’t happen prior.The context indicates that she had no sexual relations with a man up to this point in time with the angel. Correct?
It is in the fact that this young woman, who was about to be married, couldn’t understand how she was going to conceive. It isn’t logical for a woman who was planning normal sexual relation to be confused in the “how” of her pregnancy. She knew how babies were conceived. There is nothing in the angels announcement, prior to her asking “how”, that would indicate that the conception would be anything other than ordinary. There was absolutely no reason for her to suspect that the Holy Spirit would overshadow her. The angel told her this (the Holy spirit would overshadow her) in response to her question! If she had planned on having sex, she never would have asked! She shouldn’t have asked. Had she not asked the angel would have continued on to explain that the Holy Spirit would overshadow her and then you’d have a valid argument, but, since she asked an absolutely absurd question there must have been a reason. It isn’t just filler in Scripture.Where in the passage is there any indication she was to remain a virgin throughout the marriage? Where does she specifically vow this?
Why wouldn’t he? Where does the angel tell him he cannot? Mary is his wife isn’t she? She’s already pregnant, why wouldn’t he have sex with her? Why would he wait until after the birth? There was no reason for him to wait.I would agree that Joseph would not have engaged in sexual relations before Jesus was born. However after He was born there is no reason to think they did not resume normal sexual relations.