M
Mattjolley
Guest
When Jesus shouts out ‘My God, My God, why have you forsaken me?’, upon the cross, I know he is quoting Psalm 21,but applying it to himself.
Does this passage simply serve to show us to what extent he humanly, physically suffered, as any believer would cry to God at that point,surely?
Does it indicate Jesus thought God had abandoned Him at this point, so his suffering was as human as possible? I don’t think for a moment God did actually abandon Him.
Its just that you can see it another way; that the cry of Jesus implies doubt from one person of the trinity (The Son), to the Father. In His hour of need he feels alone, but surely after His ministry, claiming to be one with the Father and so forth, Christ would not suddenly indicate that the Father had abandoned him. However the form of the question ‘Why have you forsaken me?’ Implies Jesus already feels forsaken, and wishes toknow why. I freely admit I am utterly confused in my interpretation of this highly important quotation, I have been dwelling on its true meaning for a while now. I myself feel the author wished to highlight Christ’s humanity, that he, like any other, doubted during his hour of need, but I may be wrong because the other half of me reminds me that Jesus was also divine, so I don’t see how you can separate the two natures of Jesus, surely being both human and divine, he would not have these doubts. Or did the human, suffering side, come to the forefront and wonder how he could be left to suffer so harshly? It all seems to make God look like he’s left Jesus alone, even Jesus makes it seem like he feels this way.
Or, after all that, is he just quoting the Psalm because it focuses on the topic of the suffering man crying to God? Maybe after all, I’m reading too much into it! Probably knowing me!
Can somebody clear it all up, please?
Matt
Does this passage simply serve to show us to what extent he humanly, physically suffered, as any believer would cry to God at that point,surely?
Does it indicate Jesus thought God had abandoned Him at this point, so his suffering was as human as possible? I don’t think for a moment God did actually abandon Him.
Its just that you can see it another way; that the cry of Jesus implies doubt from one person of the trinity (The Son), to the Father. In His hour of need he feels alone, but surely after His ministry, claiming to be one with the Father and so forth, Christ would not suddenly indicate that the Father had abandoned him. However the form of the question ‘Why have you forsaken me?’ Implies Jesus already feels forsaken, and wishes toknow why. I freely admit I am utterly confused in my interpretation of this highly important quotation, I have been dwelling on its true meaning for a while now. I myself feel the author wished to highlight Christ’s humanity, that he, like any other, doubted during his hour of need, but I may be wrong because the other half of me reminds me that Jesus was also divine, so I don’t see how you can separate the two natures of Jesus, surely being both human and divine, he would not have these doubts. Or did the human, suffering side, come to the forefront and wonder how he could be left to suffer so harshly? It all seems to make God look like he’s left Jesus alone, even Jesus makes it seem like he feels this way.
Or, after all that, is he just quoting the Psalm because it focuses on the topic of the suffering man crying to God? Maybe after all, I’m reading too much into it! Probably knowing me!
Can somebody clear it all up, please?
Matt