A
Angelo_Michael
Guest
It has not been my intention to argue with any certainty that Matthew 1:25 indicates that Mary and Joseph had sexual relations and/or children together but rather to provide a scriptural basis wherein some may have founded the notion that perhaps they did. I appreciate the efforts of Mannyfit75 in bringing clarity and expertise to the issue and for highlighting what I did not do so earlier: that the birth of a first born son is always a demarcated event in Judaism.
However, perhaps in my ignorance or laity, I have often correlated the aforementioned implications of Matthew chapter 1 with other scriptural parameters such as: the tenor of Christ toward his mother at the wedding at Cana (John 2:4), the contrasts Christ made between His mother and brothers pertaining to His flesh and His mother and brothers who indicate so by their performing/doing the will of God (Mark 31-35), the concept of the laborers being worthy of their reward-- in this case Joseph would have been worthy of his wife Mary as he effectively adopted and protected Christ, Christ’s teaching on abstinence and chastity as being a struggle too great for many and yet worth undertaking-- especially for those ‘to whom it is given’ (Matthew 19:10-12), and perhaps yet others; and have only yet begun to have heard anything of a perpetual virginity or absence of brothers.
Another thing I have noticed is that it is interesting that people are indicating that Christ’s family was unusual but my initial understanding is that it appeared normal to an outside observer and that Christ struggled to bear the burden of His humanity until He was glorified John chapter 17-- all).
P.S.:
A poster wrote that Christ was married and had children and referenced an excerpt of Isaiah. I understand that it could be misleading but I would indicate that Christ used the parable of the sower and the seed to indicate that the seed is the word and also Christ said that the flesh profits nothing, that it is the spirit that giveth life. Also both Christ and Isaiah promote chastity and abstinence. Christ led by example and His fleshly and spiritual family are not necessarily the same thing. In my opinion, Christ’s seed has become those who receive His words; that is to say: Christians.
However, perhaps in my ignorance or laity, I have often correlated the aforementioned implications of Matthew chapter 1 with other scriptural parameters such as: the tenor of Christ toward his mother at the wedding at Cana (John 2:4), the contrasts Christ made between His mother and brothers pertaining to His flesh and His mother and brothers who indicate so by their performing/doing the will of God (Mark 31-35), the concept of the laborers being worthy of their reward-- in this case Joseph would have been worthy of his wife Mary as he effectively adopted and protected Christ, Christ’s teaching on abstinence and chastity as being a struggle too great for many and yet worth undertaking-- especially for those ‘to whom it is given’ (Matthew 19:10-12), and perhaps yet others; and have only yet begun to have heard anything of a perpetual virginity or absence of brothers.
Another thing I have noticed is that it is interesting that people are indicating that Christ’s family was unusual but my initial understanding is that it appeared normal to an outside observer and that Christ struggled to bear the burden of His humanity until He was glorified John chapter 17-- all).
P.S.:
A poster wrote that Christ was married and had children and referenced an excerpt of Isaiah. I understand that it could be misleading but I would indicate that Christ used the parable of the sower and the seed to indicate that the seed is the word and also Christ said that the flesh profits nothing, that it is the spirit that giveth life. Also both Christ and Isaiah promote chastity and abstinence. Christ led by example and His fleshly and spiritual family are not necessarily the same thing. In my opinion, Christ’s seed has become those who receive His words; that is to say: Christians.