"Jesus was non denominational"

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losnlee02 said:
So now I am thouroughly confused! In the answer that you sent us too, it says that we as Catholic Christians are not true to Jesus’ teachings because we only follow Christianity and not Judism also. So are Catholics basically the same as Protestants in that we are not fullfilling the whole life as Jesus wanted us to? I hope that is not too confusing!
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Catholicism IS the fulfillment of Judaism.

How are we not following that?

If you mean some of the laws, Jesus specifically said that we did not have to follow those. They are part of the old covenant. Jesus is the fulfillment of that covenant. This is another awfully imperfect analogy, but a covenant is a promise with two sides. The old covenant was “I will sen a savior. You must follow these laws” and then the messiah was sent, and we entered into a NEW covenant, with NEW laws. This is still a fulfillment of Judaism, but it’s the “next step” if you will. (Here comes the analogy I warned you of) Holding ourselves to the old covenant is akin to applying for something you’ve already received, after you’ve explicitly been told by the person that gave you the thing that your application is complete and filling out another won’t do anything. There’s no need.
 
Ophelia23 said:
In Early Christianity though, all Christians were Jewish people following Christ. They were even defined as a Christian Jew.
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Actually, this is false. In the Book of Acts, we see the Apostles arguing over whether pagans/gentiles who become Christians must follow the Jewish law. After some dispute, Peter changes his mind and settles the matter with a ‘no.’ The gentile Christians never became Jewish by and large.
 
losnlee02 said:
So now I am thouroughly confused! In the answer that you sent us too, it says that we as Catholic Christians are not true to Jesus’ teachings because we only follow Christianity and not Judism also. So are Catholics basically the same as Protestants in that we are not fullfilling the whole life as Jesus wanted us to? I hope that is not too confusing!
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I don’t see that. Actually, the answer seems to say that Jews who aren’t also Christian aren’t fully Jewish! :eek:
 
SonCatcher said:
I don’t see that. Actually, the answer seems to say that Jews who aren’t also Christian aren’t fully Jewish! :eek:
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That’s probably correct.

Judaism effectively ended with Christ. God didn’t want anyone to keep being Jewish, and not Christian.

Pre-crucifixion Judaism was salvific. Post-crucifixion, rabbinical Judaism is not.

When Jesus celebrated Passover, it was still under the old law.

God Bless
 
Here is the paragraph that I have the question about:

“Unfortunately, over the course of time some Christians broke away from the Church that Jesus founded, and so a name was needed to distinguish this Church from the ones that broke off from it. Because all the breakaways were particular, local groups, it was decided to call the Church Jesus founded the “universal” (Greek, kataholos = “according to the whole”) Church, and thus the name Catholic was applied to it.”

Specifically the first sentence. It clearly says that “some Christians broke away from the Church that Jesus founded, and so a name was needed to distinguish this Church from the ones that broke off from it”. That is where my confusion comes in. 😦
 
Forget it, I got it!! Those chuch’s are the Prodestant Churches!! Duh!! Me so SILLY!😊
 
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Dave_Noonan said:
Although Jesus was Jewish, almost all of the traditions about Hanukkah come from the Talmud, not the book of Maccabees.
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Without The event which occurred in Maccabees why would there even traditions associated with it.
Unless your saying the Jews made it up in the Talmud.
 
Adamski said:
An evangelical I know was concerned about having thier 4 year old attened another
Neighbors house that is Jewish to attened a Hanakah party

And I said well Jesus was Jewish

They responded no Jesus was non denominational

Then I went into how Hanakah is in the book of Macabees and an historical celebration that Christians can embrace

They continued to look at me like I was from a different planet
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Of course Jesus was non-denominational! There was only one church: His. It still is the only Church, but thanks to the protestant and the “non-denominational” revolutions, the phrase has taken on an entirely different meaning though.
 
Aeden said:
Of course Jesus was non-denominational! There was only one church: His. It still is the only Church, but thanks to the protestant and the “non-denominational” revolutions, the phrase has taken on an entirely different meaning though.
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Maybe we should use uni-denominational instead 😉

God Bless
 
Aeden when you say “Jesus was non-denominational” what exactly do you mean?
 
Kaninchen said:
Could you explain that a bit more?
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Sure.

Before Christ’s crucifixion, Jews could be saved by following the Mosaic law. Sin offerings at the Temple actually forgave sins.

These Jews went to Limbo Patrum (Limbo of the fathers) to await Christ’s death and resurrection. When we say in the Apostles Creed that Christ “descended into Hell”, we mean He went to this Limbo to preach to the “Old Testament Faithful” and bring all of them (or at least all who didn’t reject Him) to Heaven. It is also speculated that “righteous pagans” (pagans who followed the natural law, and sought truth) got the same opportunity at salvation.

Once Christ died, the old covenant was complete. The Jewish law nolonger bound Jews, the Jewish rituals no longer brought forgiveness and salvation. The symbol of this was the tearing of the Temple veils. Judaism lost its power to save, as it had been transfered to the Christian Church, through baptism and the other Sacraments.

God Bless
 
Aeden said:
Of course Jesus was non-denominational! There was only one church: His. It still is the only Church, but thanks to the protestant and the “non-denominational” revolutions, the phrase has taken on an entirely different meaning though.
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👍👍

Bingo…Nailed it…

Peace
James
 
chaunceygardner said:
The responses so far are interesting in that they obviously reflect the religious point-of-view of the writer. I would agree with the OP that Jesus was a Jew (I really didn’t think that was debatable), as were his core Apostles. He was certainly not “non-denominational”; unless that is meant in the sense that Jesus attracted and embraced people of all kinds of faiths and beliefs and irrespective of their standing within their faith.

Comment regarding the baptism of Jesus. When that occurred, no one was being baptized as a “Christian” since there was no such thing at that point. The people John was baptizing were being called to repentance, to change their lives, not to become members of a certain religion. And Jesus was not a “Christian”, but his followers and disciples were, or become such in time (which I would date as following the Resurrection).
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This 👍
 
KLJM12 said:
Regardless, a Catholic is never permitted to celebrate Hanukkah with Jews. That equates to worshipping idols and heresy.
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There is nothing heretical about Hannakah. It was a miracle that took place during the Macabbean revolt against the tyranny of Antiochus IV. As Catholic Christians we see this miracle unfold in the Old Testament.
 
losnlee02 said:
Here is the paragraph that I have the question about:

“Unfortunately, over the course of time some Christians broke away from the Church that Jesus founded, and so a name was needed to distinguish this Church from the ones that broke off from it. Because all the breakaways were particular, local groups, it was decided to call the Church Jesus founded the “universal” (Greek, kataholos = “according to the whole”) Church, and thus the name Catholic was applied to it.”

Specifically the first sentence. It clearly says that “some Christians broke away from the Church that Jesus founded, and so a name was needed to distinguish this Church from the ones that broke off from it”. That is where my confusion comes in. 😦
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That statement refers to schismatics and heretics. The rest of the paragraph explains that the Catholic Church is identified thus to stress the unity of those who remained in the Church founded by Christ.
 
bilop said:
Sure.

Before Christ’s crucifixion, Jews could be saved by following the Mosaic law. Sin offerings at the Temple actually forgave sins.
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Actually, of course, Judaism didn’t ‘work’ that way even at the time. The Christian idea of ‘salvation’ and the Jewish idea of ‘salvation’ were and are entirely different.

The key question being: ‘Saved from what, exactly?’

I do understand how fitting pre-crucifixion Jews to the Christian view of ‘salvation’ makes sense to Christians, I’m merely suggesting that finding out what Judaism at the time was all about might be interesting.
 
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