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Kind of a random question. I am not an ancient languages scholar, but there is a pretty strong consensus among those that are that Almah means “young woman.”
Where do you get “second and third hand descriptions” from “eyewitnesses from the beginning and ministers of the word”…?Well, Luke makes very clear that he is recording second and third hand descriptions.
What is your opinion concerning the word “parthenos”, found not only at Isaiah 7:14 but also at Matthew 1:23 …?very well-informed post. What is your opinion concerning the word “Almah” in Isiah 7;14 ?
Can you site some historians who make this argument? I’m not aware of any significant challenges to the two-source hypothesis that have made any scholarly inroads over the past 30 years.You’re accurately recalling what you were taught 30 years ago. More recent Catholic Scripture scholarship has moved on, though, and now there are some pretty convincing claims that there was eyewitness involvement in the development of the NT.
Prof. Pitre is a theologian, not a historian. He is a good example of the kinds of (perfectly good and honest I might add!) scholars Meier was talking about when he said:See Pitre’s “The Case for Jesus” for one good such example.
I think you have to include the entire introductory statement:Where do you get “second and third hand descriptions” from “eyewitnesses from the beginning and ministers of the word”…?
Luke is referring to “many” compilations made by others, and says that the eyewitness testimony has been “handed down”. To me that is clear that he is not talking to eyewitnesses, but referring to compilations “handed down” from eyewitnesses to others - so at least third hand. But he maybe he did talk to a few eyewitnesses, which is why I included “second and third hand.”Since many have undertaken to compile a narrative of the events that have been fulfilled among us, just as those who were eyewitnesses from the beginning and ministers of the word have handed them down to us, I too have decided, after investigating everything accurately anew, to write it down in an orderly sequence for you, most excellent Theophilus, so that you may realize the certainty of the teachings you have received.
(bold mine)When the original ancient Hebrew was translated into the greek
in the septuagint the christian scribes translated the hebrew word “almah” (“young woman”)into the greek word “parthenos” (virgin)
Some traditions put Luke as one of the 70. Mark it seems, was the owner of the home in which Jesus instituted the Eucharist.Well, Luke makes very clear that he is recording second and third hand descriptions. Mark is completely anonymous, but even the tradition is that Mark was not a witness.
The most common ‘tradition’ (which is only based on Papias, and we don’t actually have Papias’ writings), is that Luke was a Greek companion of Paul’s and that Mark was a Greek or Roman scribe or translator for Peter. I don’t think there is really anything more than speculation for any identity of Mark, and even for Luke I think it is speculation based on the text of Luke itself. Even Papias supposedly got that information something like fourth or fifth hand, and I don’t think there is much reason to credit it.Some traditions put Luke as one of the 70. Mark it seems, was the owner of the home in which Jesus instituted the Eucharist.
I believe that date refers to the completion of the original translation by the “Seventy” of the Torah (Pentateuch) alone. The other OT books were translated later, but the term “Septuagint” was retained as the designation of the complete collection.I have seen a completion date of 132 BCE (or just BC if you prefer) mentioned
Is there a reason to doubt that Mark couldn’t have contact with Jesus and be Peter’s disciple and Luke be with Paul and have contact with Jesus?The most common ‘tradition’ (which is only based on Papias, and we don’t actually have Papias’ writings), is that Luke was a Greek companion of Paul’s and that Mark was a Greek or Roman scribe or translator for Peter.
I think that has it backwards. What would be our reason to think those things?Is there a reason to doubt that Mark couldn’t have contact with Jesus and be Peter’s disciple and Luke be with Paul and have contact with Jesus?
John Mark is not thought to be Roman. Many people speculate that he was actually a Jewish author who may have been one of the 70 disciples mentioned in Luke.As to Mark, that is a similar situation. I don’t see how it would be that the Roman scribe that translated for Peter when he was in Rome would also happen to be a home owner in Jerusalem. I think those are two competing theories as to Mark’s identity, not two parts of one theory.
Right, and as Dr. Meier suggests they cut toward James being Jesus brother rather than against.Either way, we have more direct sources, especially Paul, but also the evangelists, on the issue of the familial relationship between James and Jesus.
That’s pretty recent. Luke has been mentioned in lists of the 72 disciples and is regarded as the man at Emmaus.The traditional view is that he was Greek and a travelling companion of Paul, which would not suggest that he was also a companion of Jesus.
Mark wasn’t Roman. He was a Jew and cousin of Barnabas. The Church in Jerusalem met often in his home if you check Acts 12.As to Mark, that is a similar situation. I don’t see how it would be that the Roman scribe that translated for Peter when he was in Rome would also happen to be a home owner in Jerusalem. I think those are two competing theories as to Mark’s identity, not two parts of one theory.