Jews are the chosen people?

[Walking_Home]

SolaChristo:

When God made His covenant with Abraham was it temporary of everlasting?

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It would be lasting until God came. Which He did.

 

[bigdawg]

SolaChristo:

This is what I like about this board , no one is reading what I wrote and assuming it is what they are thinking.
There are hundreds of covenants in the Old Testament.
The Abrahamiac covenant is neither conditional or is it temprary.
The Abrahamiac covenant was to Abraham and his descendants not to the gentiles the New Covenant is for the gentiles.
The question is have the Jewish people stoped being Gods chosen people? The answer is no, they are still acoording to the covenant made with Abraham. Are gentile believers Gods people? Yes according to the New Covenant given to all who believe that Jesus is the Christ and confess that He has been raised from the dead.

The Abrahamic covenant was given to Abraham when he was a gentile. This is why the Abrahamic covenant can transition over and become the New Covenant.

St. Paul writes in Romans 4:10-11:

10 How then was it reckoned to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised. 11 He received circumcision as a sign or seal of the righteousness which he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised and who thus have righteousness reckoned to them…”

St. Paul reiterates this same truth in Galatians 3:6-8:

6 Thus Abraham ‘believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.’ 7 So you see that it is men of faith who are the sons of Abraham. 8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, ‘In you shall all the nations [Gentiles] be blessed.’

It seem as though St. Paul disagrees with your assessment that the Abrahamic covenant is soley for the Jews.

 

[SolaChristo]

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It would be lasting until God came. Which He did.

Why juntil only Jesus came?
that is not what YHVH said when He made the covenant. Would Y"HVH go back on His word?

 

[SolaChristo]

bigdawg:

The Abrahamic covenant was given to Abraham when he was a gentile. This is why the Abrahamic covenant can transition over and become the New Covenant.

St. Paul writes in Romans 4:10-11:

10 How then was it reckoned to him? Was it before or after he had been circumcised? It was not after, but before he was circumcised. 11 He received circumcision as a sign or seal of the righteousness which he had by faith while he was still uncircumcised. The purpose was to make him the father of all who believe without being circumcised and who thus have righteousness reckoned to them…”

St. Paul reiterates this same truth in Galatians 3:6-8:

6 Thus Abraham ‘believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.’ 7 So you see that it is men of faith who are the sons of Abraham. 8 And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, ‘In you shall all the nations [Gentiles] be blessed.’

It seem as though St. Paul disagrees with your assessment that the Abrahamic covenant is soley for the Jews.

Paul and I are not in disagreement. Read the Abrahamiac covenant and realize it is for all time.
It really is quite simple.