P
Phyllo
Guest
Hi,
We find out Jobs possessions in the beginning of the book. Then God allows Satan to strip Job of all possessions even his children.
Now at the end of the book chap 42:10—God gives Job back all his possessions in double , because Job was faithful to Him,except his children. Job starts out with ten children and God gives him 10 .
Now in speaking with a JW I was told that the reason God gave back 10 children instead of doubling them, as He did with the live stock, was because of the resurrection at the second coming. At that time Job will have his 20 children. The 10 that Satan took and the 10 that God gave him. I guess they think that at the resurrection at the end times Job will meet up with his original 10 children. I asked how they came to this deduction because it is not stated in the bible and ,if I remember correctly, they deduced it because of the resurrection at the end times. (???)
This doesn’t make sense to me.
I have checked all the commentaries that I have and there are no footnotes in my bibles on this verse.
Does anyone out there have any comments on this?
Thanks
We find out Jobs possessions in the beginning of the book. Then God allows Satan to strip Job of all possessions even his children.
Now at the end of the book chap 42:10—God gives Job back all his possessions in double , because Job was faithful to Him,except his children. Job starts out with ten children and God gives him 10 .
Now in speaking with a JW I was told that the reason God gave back 10 children instead of doubling them, as He did with the live stock, was because of the resurrection at the second coming. At that time Job will have his 20 children. The 10 that Satan took and the 10 that God gave him. I guess they think that at the resurrection at the end times Job will meet up with his original 10 children. I asked how they came to this deduction because it is not stated in the bible and ,if I remember correctly, they deduced it because of the resurrection at the end times. (???)
This doesn’t make sense to me.
I have checked all the commentaries that I have and there are no footnotes in my bibles on this verse.
Does anyone out there have any comments on this?
Thanks