A
Assyrian412
Guest
I realize that a common interpretation of John 8:58 is that Jesus claimed the divine name I AM to himself. Critics claim that Jesus was merely claiming to have pre-existed his human birth.
From what I have read from the Apostolic, Post-Apostolic, and Ante-Nicene Fathers, I have found some who point out this verse when arguing for Jesus’ pre existence but I have not found any who used it to argue Jesus’ divinity.
Does anybody have any quotes from the early Church, before the council of Nicaea, of somebody pointing out that Jesus was using the divine name? I’m wondering if John 8:58 was interpreted this way before the Arian controversy.
From what I have read from the Apostolic, Post-Apostolic, and Ante-Nicene Fathers, I have found some who point out this verse when arguing for Jesus’ pre existence but I have not found any who used it to argue Jesus’ divinity.
Does anybody have any quotes from the early Church, before the council of Nicaea, of somebody pointing out that Jesus was using the divine name? I’m wondering if John 8:58 was interpreted this way before the Arian controversy.