In the book “Divine Mysteries of the Most Holy Rosary” taken from the “City of God” by Mary of Agreda (read more here
http://murraycreek.net/agreda/agredachp12.htm ), she indeed makes reference to the fact that John was born without original sin.
He was conceived like us in original sin. He carried that happy fault until Mary visited Elizabeth. The purpose of which was, amongst other things, to sanctify the pre-cursor of the Lord.
It is stated that when Elizabeth heard Mary’s salutation the infant John leapt in Elizabeths womb. This was the moment where John was cleansed of this necessary sin of Adam. The reading from the above mentioned book states:
***“At this moment God looked upon John in Elizabeths womb and gave him perfect use of reason, enlightening it with His Divine Light, in order to prepare himself by foreknowledge for the blessings he was to receive. Together with this preparation he was sanctified from original sin and made an adopted son of God and filled with the Holy Spirit” ***
All this is very much in keeping with scriptures which state in Lk1:14-17 that the son of Zacharias would be filled with the Holy Spirit from the womb of His mother.
John was delivered from Original Sin through a personal encounter with Christ although both were as yet unborn. This personal encounter was John’s baptism with the Holy Spirit through the presence of Christ. Why do you think Jesus did not baptise John at that great moment of the Baptism in the Jordan?? John did ask for Baptism from Jesus and Jesus submitted to the will of the Father that He should be the one to go down and sanctify the waters. Remember His words to John? “Leave it as this for now so as to fulfill all righteousness.”
You and I are also cleansed from original sin at our Baptism through a personal encounter with Christ through His Priest or Deacon
AS I have stated John was conceived naturally with original sin. (He was cleansed from it before birth through the presence of Jesus!)
Mary was conceived naturally without original sin.
Christ was conceived supernaturally without original sin.
Since John had a big part to play in the revelation of the Christ to those that God wanted to call His own, does it not make perfect sense?
As Francis Bacon once said,
Read not to contradict and
confute nor to believe and
take for granted, but to
weigh and consider.
My thoughts are very scattered on this but I hope you get my general drift!!!