Are you trying to say that John wasn’t baptized, or that Mary was, or what?
As Jesus indicated to Nicodemus in John 3:10, the spiritual birth he was referring to in this discussion is something that already existed in the Jewish tradition; therefore it could not have been baptism, though baptism contains within it a symbolic gesture towards the genuine birth in the spirit.
Recall that John the Baptist is simultaneously a physical person and a representation of a spiritual archetype. As part of the same discussion that you quoted, Jesus says:
And if ye will receive it, this is Elias, which was for to come. He that hath ears to hear, let him hear. – Matthew 11:14-15
Does this mean that John the Baptist is a “reincarnation” of Elijah? Possibly, but not necessarily. Though it does indicate that John the Baptist represents the same spiritual archetype as Elijah. Jesus closes that discussion with “he who has ears to hear, let him hear,” which he often uses when he is speaking symbolically or “in code,” further suggesting that he is speaking of the spiritual archetype represented by John, not the physical person of John himself.
Recall also from the passage I cited, “Except a man be born of water and of the Spirit, he cannot enter into the kingdom of God.” This implies the birth in the spirit is a
prerequisite to enter the Kingdom. It is necessary, but not sufficient. There are still other steps, or requirements.
“John” (the archetype), being a baptist (which as stated earlier is a symbolic representation of the birth in the Spirit), indicates someone who has achieved this spiritual birth (and is thus greater than those born of flesh, or of woman), but has not yet entered the Kingdom. He represents an intermediate stage. He prepares the way for the Lord, but is not the Lord himself (John 1:23-27).
So the statement in Matthew 11:11 really has nothing to do with John or Mary’s
personal greatness or spiritual development. It’s about the archetype John represents.