T
TheSpiritHeals
Guest
Does anyone know the Church’s reasoning for saying that John the Baptist was born
without original sin?
without original sin?
the Church does not teach this as infallible dogma, but the fact that Elizabeth declares that the infant leapt in her womb as Mary, bearing the Savior in her own womb, approached, is taken by some to mean he recognized the presence of Christ even before his birth, who he was, and was “saved” by him at that moment.Does anyone know the Church’s reasoning for saying that John the Baptist was born
without original sin?
It is NOT a Church teaching.And speaking about EWTN, yesterday’s homily by Father Trigilio, addressed this very issue that arose out of the day’s gospel. He confirmed the same message; i.e., that** the Church believes** St. John the Baptist was cleansed of original sin by the Holy Spirit from his mother’s womb, even though he was conceived with it.
If anyone wants to listen, it can be viewed here. Scroll to 07:55.
It is not Church teaching of any kind.Well, Thistle, perhaps not in the form of an official dogma, but it is believed “generally,” albeit not with the strength of Divine Revelation.
Fr. Trigilio has authored several books and appears frequently on EWTN. He is known to be very orthodox.
You have some further study to show us?
You are missing the point. I am not saying I disbelieve. I am saying it is not and never has been a Church teaching of any kind that John The Baptist was conceived in original sin but born free from original sin.We will not find this in a catechism, for instance, and it is not part of the creed whereby we profess it as a belief for salvation. Nevertheless, scripture does record in the message of the angel that “He shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother’s womb.”
We know the Holy Ghost indwells the soul when original sin is removed, so how else would you explain this fulfilled prophecy?
The Catechism states that John was filled with the Holy Spirit even from his mother’s womb. What I find odd is 411 where Mary alone is mentioned freed from original sin. I find this confusing. Does filled with the Holy Spirit equal free from original sin? If so, there are others who are said to be filled with the Holy Spirit Elizabeth- Simeon. Does the Church teach it? I am not sure. Could you provde a source from the Church?It is indeed a Church teaching that St. John the Forerunner was sanctified in the womb.
Lets end this “its not infallibly defined” shenanigans. Not everything in our faith has been “infallibly defined”. A lot of our faith is based on traditions from the time of the Apostles. If we pray the faith in our Churches from the dawn of Christianity, why shouldn’t it be something we believe in? Waiting for something to be infallibly defined is needless legalism which trivializes our faith and leads to nothing but Phraiseeism.
The Catholic Church taught this? I am not sure I understand you but if you are saying the sin is because we have flesh than this was never taught. Perhaps you can explain more.I always thought that ‘original sin’ was being clothed in flesh as both Adam and Eve were formed in the likeness of God. Knowledge of good and evil came with the demands of the flesh…climate, food, health, etc. Is that still a part of the RCC teachings?![]()
Actually, the passage you quote needs to be read in context with the previous #410.What I find odd is 411 where Mary alone is mentioned freed from original sin. I find this confusing. Does filled with the Holy Spirit equal free from original sin? If so, there are others who are said to be filled with the Holy Spirit Elizabeth- Simeon. Does the Church teach it?