Josephite Marriage?

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From what I understand…Mary and Joseph’s marriage also was different from the marriage that we have today because their marriage was not sacramental…it was covenantal. In their case, they didn’t have to consumate in order for the marriage to be valid because…those rules did not yet apply. I think a Josephite marriage is still not considered completely valid until the couple consumates…but I guess the key is that they have the ability to do so when ready.
It would be valid, but not consummated. Here Jimmy Akin explains it well: jimmyakin.typepad.com/defensor_fidei/2005/07/marys_marriage.html
 
I’m not giving out medical advice here, but perhaps you ought to consult a doctor of medicine rather than a doctor of canon law.

It may be that your impotence is not as perpetual as it might seem, with medication, various physical aids, etc, it may be possible for you to have intercourse. You might not be able to orgasm from the intercourse, but infertility does not invalidate marriage, as long as the intent is there to complete the act, even if you are unable to. That way, even if you and your wife both decide that it’s not fair on you to ask you to perform in that way, at least you would be able to complete the marital promise if you ever changed your mind.

With current, and ongoing, advances in medical science, I would think the only things that would count as a guarantee of ‘perpetual’ impotence in today’s medical climate would be something extreme, like not having a male member at all. Remember Abraham and Sarah were well advanced in years and thought these things were past them forever, but God provides.
 
true…but in a Josephite marriage there is no sex…(think Mary and Joseph)
Only as long as there is mutual consent. The ability to have relations has to be present. Either partner can request the marital embrace at any time, ending the celibate nature of the marriage.
 
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