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LaudemGloriae
Guest
It would be valid, but not consummated. Here Jimmy Akin explains it well: jimmyakin.typepad.com/defensor_fidei/2005/07/marys_marriage.htmlFrom what I understand…Mary and Joseph’s marriage also was different from the marriage that we have today because their marriage was not sacramental…it was covenantal. In their case, they didn’t have to consumate in order for the marriage to be valid because…those rules did not yet apply. I think a Josephite marriage is still not considered completely valid until the couple consumates…but I guess the key is that they have the ability to do so when ready.