I might be a complete moron, but I have no idea how this makes sense. I’m not seeing the logic here.
No one’s a moron, here, but I do think we’re complicating things by mixing several ideas. I don’t think anyone should be blamed for any confusion that might result.
One should not seek to upset the balance of justice.
In case you were wondering, I don’t actually agree with the ethical concept of justice. I’m just supporting Spock’s criticism of systems based on the concept. I care about utility, not justice.
By imprisoning them before they commit a crime, you do just that (i.e. upset the balance), and then require punishment later on.
Precisely. Crime upsets the balance, and preemptive punishment does the same. According to justice theory, things of this sort must be countered by equal and opposite effects in order to restore balance. So if punishment counters crime, would crime not counter punishment?
The better thing would have been not to upset the balance in the first place, assuming that the balance of justice is a good thing.
This would be the case with the original sequence of events (crime to punishment), no?
You only imprison someone to restore the balance. So an answer to the question, “Should we imprison people ahead of time to atone for crimes ahead of time,” would be, “No, because that action would disrupt the balance of justice, requiring to be fixed later on.”
I think we’re on different wavelengths here. The person in question has been imprisoned for doing nothing, so the balance of justice would already be disrupted. The person would then be morally obligated to commit a crime in order to restore the balance caused by the preemptive punishment. It’s like the common “eye for an eye” practice, except the order of the victims has been reversed. Either way, balance ensues, so how is there any morally significant difference between this and the standard sequence of crime-to-punishment? I think justice theories fail to address the apparent lack of utility in this method. Sometimes, “righting a wrong” simply makes no sense, and this argument exploits that.
It makes as much sense as breaking your car, and then fixing it, with the excuse, “I did this so I didn’t have to fix it later on.” Huh?
Correct. This is why I prefer the standard of utility to the standard of justice. It makes loads more sense.
First of all, with the imprisonment example and the car example, there seems to be some assumption that the person is actually going to commit a crime … but that’s not necessarily true. We don’t know future contingents. Most atheists and agnostics would agree to that.
Well now you’re just complaining about philosophic inquiry. Hypotheticals pervade the world of philosophy; they’re our ways of simplifying otherwise complex systems, theories, etc. This is just an “if” scenario designed to prompt an answer for a straightforward ethical question. Now, you could ask,“Why not just ask the question then?” The answer: that would be too easy.
Personally, I suspect that the type of questioning we see in this thread is designed to separate the consequentialists from the deontologists. Essentially: do you believe punishment should be used to dissuade others from future crimes, or simply because the criminals deserve it? Considering the role that morality has in society, I think it’s just plain suicidal to remove actions from their consequences when rendering their moral value, so I would side with the former, hence my disagreement with justice.
Now, maybe I completely misunderstood the point. I think I did … because I didn’t understand it at all.
My guess is that you don’t agree with the standard of justice that’s being discussed, and so we’ve began with different ideas of “justice” from the start. I’d take that as a compliment, if I were you.
Right. Exactly. So the argument … dare I say … doesn’t make any sense. Right?
I wouldn’t say so. I’m just saying that the argument would be more persuasive and fluid if Spock would add more detail. As it stands, it doesn’t have a chance at persuading others in this thread.