justification by faith alone in Early Fathers

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Well, that is a good question.

What is the acquittal based off of? A internal righteousness or an alien righteousness?

Paul answers this question over and over again.

“…being justified as a gift of grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by His blood to be received through faith…” (Rom 3:24-25)

The ground of this “justification” is not stated, here anyway, in any other terms than the sacrifice of Jesus. There is your answer.
The sacrifice of Christ bought justification. The verse could be read that way, which is in accord with Catholic teaching. We are justified as a gift of grace through Christ’s redemption. This verse doesn’t say whether the justification involves “make righteous” or “consider righteous.” Either one could be interpreted in this verse.
In another place:
“it will imputed to us who believe in Him who raised our Lord Jesus from the dead, who was delivered up for our offenses, and was raised for our justification” (Rom 4:25).
Again, justification here is not grounded or even hinted as being involved with our good works. Justification is inextricably tied to Jesus death and resurrection. And that all Paul has to say!
This begs the question: Does impute here mean to consider righteous because of an alien righteousness or to consider righteous because of infused righteousness? As with the above verse, either one could be interpreted.
“Much more having been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him” (Rom 5:9)
Again, the good works of believers is not even stated or hinted at. The word “justified” is used, and it is grounded in the “blood” of Jesus,
Yes, grounded in Christ’s blood. I don’t think Catholics would argue with that. But that doesn’t say whether the text means “made righteous by his blood” or “declared righteous by his blood.” Again, you have not answered the question.
“For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us so that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him” (2 Corinthians 5:21)
How did God make Christ to be sin? The same word “made” is used in both instances, either “made Him who knew no sin” or “that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him”. Therefore, I ask, how did God make Christ to be sin ? Did Christ become a sinner? No. Therefore, what does it mean that we are “made the righteousness of God in Him”? It must mean that we are acquitted or justified.
That conclusion is not necessary. Both “we might be made righteous” or “we might be declared righteous” can be interpreted here.
“For if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ Jesus died in vain” (Gal 2:20)
We are not made righteous by our own efforts or goodness; we are made righteous by Christ’s death. Again, this verse does not prove imputation of alien righteousness.
 
  1. There really isn’t a scholary historian that I know that can find a place in any ancient antiquity which teaches that the word “justify” (dikaioo) means to “make righteous”. In fact many of the scholars who still wrongly call themselves catholic such as Hans King and Joseph Fitzmyer both realize that the latin vulgate wrongfully translated the work-group of DIK into “make righteous” instead of “declare righteous”. This point has little relevance since you take the bishops of rome and the college of bishops to be under the present power and wisdom of Christ Jesus.
  2. It just doesn’t make sense to directly go from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness and good behavior. It makes much more sense to directly argue from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness to acquittal for divine judgement on sin. It is just out of wack with Paul’s argument.
We are “justified” (made behaviorally good throughout our lives) by his “blood” (sacrificial offering)??? Much more preferred is the idea of acquittal.

This is getting nowhere really. But I will add one last thing.

I have been blessed to have never been around the modern day protestant Church which teaches that all mankind has to do is bow their heads, pray a little tiny prayer, and belief that Jesus died for their sins, and they are eternally sealed in the kingdom of God.

In fact, I have only met these kind of evangelicals in my witnessing encounters, which usually are spent showing them the true conversion of Christ, in which once they see it from the Scriptures, they confess that good works are the necessary consequence of salvation in Christ Jesus.

I was introduced to real Christianity when a gospel missionary shared the message of divine judgement upon human sinfulness, the exalted and gracious provision of God in the death and resurrection of His Son, and the necessity of Repentance, conversion in order to benefit from that gracious provision. On top of this, the necessity of perserverance in holiness unto the end.

Later in life, I was excommunicated from a protestant church for failure to exhibit a repentant lifestyle and was pleaded to repent and be restored. Something that I have never seen done in a catholic church.

I am very unfamiliar with the supposed licentious consequences of “faith alone” that many here propose. In fact, I personally have only seen “easy-believism” in its most explicit form in the roman catholic church
 
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I am very unfamiliar with the supposed licentious consequences of “faith alone” that many here propose. In fact, I personally have only seen “easy-believism” in its most explicit form in the roman catholic church
Erick in Christ,

My experience is exactly the opposite and I have engaged hundreds of non-Catholics. Moreover, I have never seen “easy-believism” in the Catholic Church or her teachings. Moreover, you are the first non-Catholic that has, in my experience, ever leveled that charge against Catholicism.

If you get a chance please respond to my post # 108.

Thanks and God bless.
 
Erick in Christ,

In one of your posts you stated that Paul, when speaking of justification, is always speaking of it as a single event. Please be advised that Paul refers to justification of Abraham on more than one occasion. We see the second occasion in Gal 3:5-9 where Paul says:
Does he who supplies the Spirit to you and works miracles among you do so by works of the law, or by hearing with faith? Thus Abraham “believed God, and it was reckoned to him as righteousness.” So you see that it is men of faith who are the sons of Abraham. And the scripture, foreseeing that God would justify the Gentiles by faith, preached the gospel beforehand to Abraham, saying, “In you shall all the nations be blessed.” So then, those who are men of faith are blessed with Abraham who had faith.
That quote is a reference to Abraham’s justification in Genesis 12:1-4 which says:
Now the Lord said to Abram, “Go from your country and your kindred and your father’s house to the land that I will show you. And I will make of you a great nation, and I will bless you, and make your name great, so that you will be a blessing. I will bless those who bless you, and him who curses you I will curse; and by you all the families of the earth shall bless themselves.” So Abram went, as the Lord had told him; and Lot went with him. Abram was seventy-five years old when he departed from Haran.
Galatians 3:5-9 makes it clear that the belief that Abraham had in this instance came by way of the Spirit and grace, and that as a result “it was reckoned to him as righteousness” just as his faith was reckoned to him as righteousness in Genesis 15:6.

Like James, Paul quite naturally uses the phrase “reckoned to him as righteousness” in referring to an instance of Abraham’s justification other than the instance cited by Paul in Genesis 15:16 where the phrase is found. Moreover, Paul may very well be the author of the Book of Hebrews in which he speaks of Abraham being justified in Genesis 12:1-4.

I hope that information begins to shed light on the issue as presented by us on this thread.

God bless.
 
Scholars can only go with the possible. Man can’t make anyone righteous. Yet the use of the verb in question is in a manner that naturally means to make such and such.
  1. There really isn’t a scholary historian that I know that can find a place in any ancient antiquity which teaches that the word “justify” (dikaioo) means to “make righteous”. In fact many of the scholars who still wrongly call themselves catholic such as Hans King and Joseph Fitzmyer both realize that the latin vulgate wrongfully translated the work-group of DIK into “make righteous” instead of “declare righteous”. This point has little relevance since you take the bishops of rome and the college of bishops to be under the present power and wisdom of Christ Jesus.
Do scholarly historians think that God acts as man does?

From David Palm’s presentation to the Midwest Baptist Conference Theological Workshop
And so the Catholic exegete acknowledges that dikaioo in specific contexts often means " to declare righteous," but this does not settle the case…First, we should note that "verbs in -oo mean to make whatever the root indicates. Thus dikaioo should properly mean ‘make just’ And keeping in mind, the fact that it often means “declare righteous” in many of the passages adduced as evidence for purely forensic righteiousness becomes somewhat less significant. For all of the secular uses and many of the OT uses have human agents as the subject o fhte verb. But since a human being is intrinsically unable to “make” anything by righteous by a verdict, in these context the verb takes on a nuance not native to its underlying formation, namely “to declare righteous.” But as we have seen above the declaration of God has no such intrincic restrictions and thus we should allow the word to have is natural meaning of “making righteous.”
Thus let God be God. When He speaks, that which is not becomes that which is.
  1. It just doesn’t make sense to directly go from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness and good behavior. It makes much more sense to directly argue from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness to acquittal for divine judgement on sin. It is just out of whack with Paul’s argument.
His Blood is a Propitiation to the Father for Original Sin and our actual sin. It is applied by repentance and brings Justification (making us righteous, and increasing in the same) through that proptiation.
We are “justified” (made behaviorally good throughout our lives) by his “blood” (sacrificial offering)??? Much more preferred is the idea of acquittal.
And with that acquittal (propitiation) comes the life of God within us.

peace
steve
 
This is from the westminster confession of faith. They understood these two things to be necessary for eternal life.

OF SANCTIFICATION

I. They, who are once effectually called, and regenerated, having a new heart, and a new spirit created in them, are further sanctified, really and personally, through the virtue of Christ’s death and resurrection,[1] by His Word and Spirit dwelling in them:[2] the dominion of the whole body of sin is destroyed,[3] and the several lusts thereof are more and more weakened and mortified;[4] and they more and more quickened and strengthened in all saving graces,[5] to the practice of true holiness, without which no man shall see the Lord.[6]

Chapter XV
Of Repentance unto Life

II. By it, a sinner, out of the sight and sense not only of the danger, but also of the filthiness and odiousness of his sins, as contrary to the holy nature, and righteous law of God; and upon the apprehension of His mercy in Christ to such as are penitent, so grieves for, and hates his sins, as to turn from them all unto God,[3] purposing and endeavouring to walk with Him in all the ways of His commandments.[4]
III. Although repentance is not to be rested in, as any satisfaction for sin, or any cause of the pardon thereof,[5] which is the act of God’s free grace in Christ,[6] yet it is of such necessity to all sinners, that none may expect pardon without it.[7]
  1. Ephesians 2:4-10 says “But God, who is rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved), and raised us up together, and made us sit together in the heavenly places in Christ Jesus, that in the ages to come He might show the exceeding riches of His grace in His kindness toward us in Christ Jesus. For by grace you have been saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast. For we are His workmanship, created in Christ Jesus for good works, which God prepared beforehand that we should walk in them”. You must recognize the past tense of the word “saved”. Is this not past tense? Is it not salvation that is stated as past tense? Therefore, somewhere in our minds we need to find the ability to speak as Paul, the apostolic voice that salvation can be spoken of in the past tense. I understand this is new for Catholics and uncomfortable. But Paul was quite expectant for the Ephesians to speak to each other as a community who has been saved. If we are bugged out by this fact, we need changing, not the apostolic voice. The salvation in the past tense is parallel to being “raised with Jesus Christ”, in such a way that to mention one is the mean the other. Therefore, it is only in so far as we have been “raised” with Christ that we are “saved” (past tense). This means that salvation is not a mere covering of one’s sin and a simple external label of being “forgiven”. No, much more than that, being “saved” (past tense) means to have been already “raised” with Christ Jesus. Well, what does it mean to be “raised” with Christ Jesus? Once this is determined, then we will have more definition to give to what it means to be already “saved” (past tense). Previously having stated the dead state of Adamic humanity in 2:1-3 as “those who are dead in trespasses and sins, in which you once walked according to the course of this world, according to the prince of the power of the air, the spirit who now works in the sons of disobedience, among whom also we all once conducted ourselves in the lusts of our flesh, fulfilling the desires of the flesh and of the mind, and were by nature children of wrath, just as the other. But God, who is rich in mercy, because of His great love with which He loved us, even when we were dead in trespasses, made us alive together with Christ (by grace you have been saved)”, we therefore must understand salvation to be a direct deliverance from this state. In simpler terms, salvation is taking us from our lifestyle which is enslaved to “sin” and bringing us into an entirely new situation where we are righteous men and woman. However, Paul is eager to show that it is grace that makes this great transition, not a work of man. Therefore, “grace” is not to be understood as this outward declaration that someone is forgiven, rather “grace” is the method behind the power of God taking us from deadness to being “alive”. That being said, Paul says we have been “raised” already. In other words, this is again another term that Paul uses as if it has already happened. It is a statement about what has already been done. We are raised when we are changed by God from walking in sin to being alive and walking in righteousness. Paul’s main point here is that we have been brought by the grace of God from a place of deadness and sin slavery to a place where we are re-created, born from above, arisen from the dead, and walking in good works, and it is not a result of our own works, but a result of grace by means of faith. So what role does “faith” play in this? Is it simply a lip service that “Yes Jesus I believe in You”, or is “faith” here a special term that Paul is using as the divine means of effecting the “resurrection” or “raising” that happens when we are “saved”. Yes, faith is the means on our side that this divine miracle of regeneration happens. Faith is not the “good works” that the “grace” brings us to, rather “faith” is what stands in between our lost and dead lives to our new life of righteous living.
 
  1. The Scripture which indicate that we are justified by our works, such as those in Jesus and James, are valid scripture of course. We are justified by our works, for this is exactly what God’s grace inevitably brings us to be, a people zealous for good works (Titus 2:11). But is this being “justified” by our works the same as being “saved” at that moment of being “justified” by our works. This gets tricky. For we know that in Ephesians, Paul says we are “saved” (in the past tense) and the good works that we walk in are “after” the act of being “raised with Christ”. If you fail to see this you are ignoring the text. Therefore, for Paul, salvation is something that is operative before we do any good works. Therefore, to say that we are saved by works, in this initial sense, is to contradict the apostolic voice. That being said, there is a truth to the fact that at the end of our lives, that our lives and works will be examined to see if they are worthy of entering the kingdom of God. There is a final justification for all of God’s saints, and it is based on their love, their service to Christ Jesus, their sacrifice and mercy and acts of justice, etc,etc. These works will determine where they go; heaven or hell. James is not teaching that Abraham was lost all up until he offered Isaac on the alter. Abraham was already in a deep faith in God and in a state of blessing and salvation. Rather, this moment was a test of his faith, to see if he really would obey God. And by his obedience, he was justified. For faith always leads to obedience, therefore our obedience will be the standard of being just or unjust.
  2. We know that Abraham was justified in Genesis 15:6, and that this justification is by faith, without works contributing. Whereas Genesis 22 says that Abraham was justified by works, together with faith. I understand this to simply be that Abraham was already righteous before God because his faith was reckoned for righteousness years before his offering of Isaac. Therefore, Abraham remains a just man all the way up until his lifts the knife at Isaac. The obedience of Abraham is simply confirming what has been going on in his life for years. But nevertheless God was testing him, and if he failed, he would have been unjustified in God’s eyes. Therefore this test was a type of the final judgement. So yes, this justification is by faith and works, not faith alone.
  3. Works do justify us yes. But we must understand that there is an operation coming from the grace of God even before we are converted to Him. Ephesians 2:1-10. He loved us before we changed. And even the change itself is an act of divine grace. The good works are nevertheless genuine and can be used as a standard for the end-time acquittal that we all await.
  4. Phineas was justified by works.
That all being said. “Justification” in Paul remains to be that state of blessing, in my understanding, which involves the state of innocence before God, grounded in Christ’s sacrifice, that we receive by faith alone through baptism. This state of being “blameless” will stay with us in conjunction with our works so that on the final day of judgement, we will receive the eschatological justification that issues entrance in the kingdom of heaven.
 
Erick,

I agree totally with what you’ve written up to this point.
Faith is not the “good works” that the “grace” brings us to, rather “faith” is what stands in between our lost and dead lives to our new life of righteous living.
But a living faith itself depends upon those works of righteous living. The assent of the will is necessary to keep one’s faith alive.

peace
steve
 
  1. The obedience of Abraham is simply confirming what has been going on in his life for years. But nevertheless God was testing him, and if he failed, he would have been unjustified in God’s eyes.
Works keep our faith alive by the continual assent of our will to the actions of the Holy Spirit within. If we continue to resist (not assent) we may end up irretrievably cut off from God, with a dead faith.
  1. Works do justify us yes. But we must understand that there is an operation coming from the grace of God even before we are converted to Him. Ephesians 2:1-10. He loved us before we changed. And even the change itself is an act of divine grace. The good works are nevertheless genuine and can be used as a standard for the end-time acquittal that we all await.
Works both keep our faith alive and sanctify our soul. But it is God who works in us both to will and to do.
That all being said. “Justification” in Paul remains to be that state of blessing, in my understanding, which involves the state of innocence before God, grounded in Christ’s sacrifice, that we receive by faith alone through baptism. This state of being “blameless” will stay with us in conjunction with our works so that on the final day of judgement, we will receive the eschatological justification that issues entrance in the kingdom of heaven.
But works keep that faith living, so we cannot say that justification is a point in time, but rather a process working out in time. In regard to the “past” tense uses of justification by Paul, realize that in many cases the aorist tense is used, which can represent the entrance into a condition (in this case the “justified” condition.)

peace
steve
 
Scholars can only go with the possible. Man can’t make anyone righteous. Yet the use of the verb in question is in a manner that naturally means to make such and such.

Do scholarly historians think that God acts as man does?

From David Palm’s presentation to the Midwest Baptist Conference Theological Workshop

Thus let God be God. When He speaks, that which is not becomes that which is.

His Blood is a Propitiation to the Father for Original Sin and our actual sin. It is applied by repentance and brings Justification (making us righteous, and increasing in the same) through that proptiation.

And with that acquittal (propitiation) comes the life of God within us.

peace
steve
I will confess that repentance and conversion is the means that the blood-sacrifice come to benefit us (through baptism). Therefore, one cannot “believe” and receive justification without at the same time “changing” or “converting”. Remeber, Zacheaus was saved not when he believed in jesus, but when he willed to restore and confess his sin
 
Works keep our faith alive by the continual assent of our will to the actions of the Holy Spirit within. If we continue to resist (not assent) we may end up irretrievably cut off from God, with a dead faith.

Works both keep our faith alive and sanctify our soul. But it is God who works in us both to will and to do.

But works keep that faith living, so we cannot say that justification is a point in time, but rather a process working out in time. In regard to the “past” tense uses of justification by Paul, realize that in many cases the aorist tense is used, which can represent the entrance into a condition (in this case the “justified” condition.)

peace
steve
I see.
 
I never got an answer to my question of what happens AFTER a person is justified and baptized and violates one of the ten commandments and unexpectedly dies before coming to any kind of repentance–do they go to Heaven or Hell?

I want to hear a faith alone proponent give an answer and the only two choices are Heaven and Hell!

The answer to this question will unmask a faith alone proponent for what he truly is!
 
I don’t know the answer to that question. I’m not sure how Paul could possibly write to the Corinthians the way he did if he thought they were hell bound.

There was a sexually immoral man in their congregation and theybdid not kick him out. They were suing each other, they were fooling around at the lords table, getting drunk, theyvwere proud, didn’t believe in the resurrection, abused the spiritual gifts, the whole church was divided.

Because of their sin in the lords supper, God made some sick and he made some die. But Paul still says that god did it for their good.

And Paul wrote to then as if theyvwere still recipients of the promises 1 Corinthians 1
 
  1. There really isn’t a scholary historian that I know that can find a place in any ancient antiquity which teaches that the word “justify” (dikaioo) means to “make righteous”. In fact many of the scholars who still wrongly call themselves catholic such as Hans King and Joseph Fitzmyer both realize that the latin vulgate wrongfully translated the work-group of DIK into “make righteous” instead of “declare righteous”.
This is a good point, but it doesn’t settle the issue. Augustine, who is often believed to have gotten the wrong meaning of justify because he was dependent on the Latin term, actually acknowledged the term could be used to mean “make righteous” or “to declare righteous.” This can be seen in chapter 45 of “On the Spirit and the Letter.” (I have been working through that passage recently.)

Here are some definitions:

From Biblestudytools.com:
Code:
 to render righteous or such he ought to be
to show, exhibit, evince, one to be righteous, such as he is and wishes himself to be considered
to declare, pronounce, one to be just, righteous, or such as he ought to be
From Teknia.com:

to justify, vindicate, declare righteous, to put someone in a proper relationship with another, usually referring to God’s relationship to humankind, implying a proper legal or moral relationship
pr. to make or render right or just; mid. to act with justice, Rev. 22:11; to avouch to be good and true, to vindicate, Mt. 11:19; Lk. 7:29; to set forth as good and just, Lk. 10:29; 16:15; in NT to hold as guiltless, to accept as righteous, to justify, Rom. 3:26, 30; 4:5; 8:30, 33; pass. to be held acquitted, to be cleared, Acts 13:39; Rom. 3:24; 6:7; to be approved, to stand approved, to stand accepted, Rom. 2:13; 3:20, 28

As you can see from these two lexical entries, the word can have both meanings. Therefore, we need to see how the NT authors used the term. Paul, in Titus 3:4-7, used the term “justify” in the sense of making righteous:

4 But when the kindness of God our Savior and His love for mankind appeared, 5 He saved us, not on the basis of deeds which we have done in righteousness, but according to His mercy, by the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit, 6 whom He poured out upon us richly through Jesus Christ our Savior, 7 so that being justified by His grace we would be made heirs according to the hope of eternal life.

The word “justified” here is used in the immediate context of transformation: the washing of regeneration and renewing by the Holy Spirit.
  1. It just doesn’t make sense to directly go from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness and good behavior. It makes much more sense to directly argue from a blood-sacrifice on account of human sinfulness to acquittal for divine judgement on sin. It is just out of wack with Paul’s argument.
Sorry, but I don’t understand what you mean here.
We are “justified” (made behaviorally good throughout our lives) by his “blood” (sacrificial offering)??? Much more preferred is the idea of acquittal.
Much more preferred by you, but that doesn’t settle the issue. You haven’t even provided any definitions for dikaioo in response to my question. I am wondering how thoroughly you have examined this issue. I admit that I am still working through the whole justification issue, but so far I haven’t seen you provide any substantial proof that justify must mean “declare righteous.”
This is getting nowhere really. But I will add one last thing.
I agree, Erick, but it could go somewhere if we got down to brass tacks. As I said above, you have not provided nearly enough evidence to support your view that justify must always have just a declarative sense.
I have been blessed to have never been around the modern day protestant Church which teaches that all mankind has to do is bow their heads, pray a little tiny prayer, and belief that Jesus died for their sins, and they are eternally sealed in the kingdom of God.
The sinner’s prayer and altar call are indeed horrible Protestant neo-traditions. And dangerous, too. Thankfully those in Reformed circles don’t use them.
In fact, I have only met these kind of evangelicals in my witnessing encounters, which usually are spent showing them the true conversion of Christ, in which once they see it from the Scriptures, they confess that good works are the necessary consequence of salvation in Christ Jesus.
And according to James 2, they are more than just a consequence; they precede justification because faith, which precedes justification, can’t exist without them. This is another problem with this discussion, Erick: You haven’t made much effort to harmonize James 2 with Paul’s teaching on justification. Or if you have, I’ve missed it because it was so brief. What you’ve done is what most people will do when faced with two passages in the Bible that are in tension: focus primarily on those passages that support the theological system they’ve already made up their minds to accept, while spending almost no attention on the passage(s) that causes tension. THAT is a major reason why discussions like this go nowhere.
Later in life, I was excommunicated from a protestant church for failure to exhibit a repentant lifestyle and was pleaded to repent and be restored. Something that I have never seen done in a catholic church.
Perhaps not, but have you attended any Catholic Church for an extended period of time? I hope so, if you’re making such sweeping statements like that.
I am very unfamiliar with the supposed licentious consequences of “faith alone” that many here propose. In fact, I personally have only seen “easy-believism” in its most explicit form in the roman catholic church
Really? How so?
 
I never got an answer to my question of what happens AFTER a person is justified and baptized and violates one of the ten commandments and unexpectedly dies before coming to any kind of repentance–do they go to Heaven or Hell?

I want to hear a faith alone proponent give an answer and the only two choices are Heaven and Hell!

The answer to this question will unmask a faith alone proponent for what he truly is!
Jerry-Jet, I believe the answer would be that they would not go to hell because of the once-for-all imputation of Christ’s righteousness to the believer.
 
Erick, I’m willing to consider passages that clearly show, by their context, that justify means only to declare righteous. The passages you’ve come up with, though, as I’ve pointed out, can have both meanings. Do you have any others?
 
Thanks for the response.

Btw, I do not believe in the imputation of Christ’s righteousness. This is a later protestant formulation that wasn’t even prevalent in the original reformers. Its kind of an embarrassing teaching, if we were to look at Scripture, for the protestant side of the argument.

With regards to the word “Justify” or “justified”, you should do a word study on the word itself, I will provide a few here.

Matthew 12:37
for by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned.”
(to be justified is not a process of making the human being speak in a righteous way, rather justify is an event AFTER the words have already been said, in order to give the verdict if they were right or if they were condemnation worthy)

Romans 3:4
By no means! Let God be true though every one were a liar, as it is written, “That you may be justified by your words, and prevail when you are judged.”
(this verse is referring to God. We cannot possibly think that God is in the process of being made righteous in his words. Rather God is showing himself righteous in his words)

Luke 7:29
And when all the people heard Him, even the tax collectors justified God, having been baptized with the baptism of John.
(The tax collectors are not kick starting the process of taking God from being evil to being good. Rather they are exalting a righteousness which they have come to realize Has always been there)

1 Corinthians 4:4
For I know of nothing against myself, yet I am not justified by this; but He who judges me is the Lord.
(Again, Paul is using this word in the sense of acquittal. The word dikaioo does not mean here for Paul to be made righteous when he is judged, rather to be shown righteous when he is judged)

“Was not our father Abraham justified by works*** when*** He offered up Isaac on the altar” (James 2:24-25)
**This is not teaching that Abraham was “made righteous” as if he was less righteous the moment before or that he is in the process where God is continually making him righteous. This is a faulty way of looking at it. Rather, Abraham himself was given a command by God and only when his completed the word of obedience was he then “justified” by God. He was found to pass God’s test and therefore merited the blessing. This justification of Abraham is a moment in Time. Notice the emphasis on “Abraham justified by works WHEN he offered up Isaac”. In other words, his works were already done before the justification occurred. Or we could say they happened at the same time. **

Excuse the Caps

But finally, just look at the way it is used in Romans itself. “Only the doers of the law shall be justified…on the day of judgement” (Rom 2). This is a future declaration that AFTER A PERSONS WORKS are examined, they are shown to PASS THE JUDGEMENT. In the same way just a few verses before “Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh shall be justified in His sight” (Rom 3:20). HUMAN BEINGS ARE ALWAYS IN GOD’S SIGHT. THEREFORE THIS “SIGHT” MUST BE A SPECIFIC ONE, A JUDGING ONE, WHETHER PRESENT OR FUTURE. And the word “sight” lends more weight to the fact that it means “righteous from God’s perspective” which is much different than “CHANGED THEIR BEHAVIOR FROM BEING LESS RIGHTEOUS TO BEING MORE RIGHTEOUS IN GOD’s SIGHT”

Therefore, again, when it is said that we are “justified freely by his grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus” (Rom 3:24) and that “we are justified by His blood” (rom 5:9) that it is clearly referring to being put into a state of being innocent, freed from all reasons for condemnation or wrongdoing. A judgement of being in conformity with God’s standards.
 
With regards to the word “Justify” or “justified”, you should do a word study on the word itself, I will provide a few here.
How do you know that I haven’t?
Matthew 12:37
for by your words you will be justified, and by your words you will be condemned.”
(to be justified is not a process of making the human being speak in a righteous way, rather justify is an event AFTER the words have already been said, in order to give the verdict if they were right or if they were condemnation worthy)
Romans 3:4
By no means! Let God be true though every one were a liar, as it is written, “That you may be justified by your words, and prevail when you are judged.”
(this verse is referring to God. We cannot possibly think that God is in the process of being made righteous in his words. Rather God is showing himself righteous in his words)
Luke 7:29
And when all the people heard Him, even the tax collectors justified God, having been baptized with the baptism of John.
(The tax collectors are not kick starting the process of taking God from being evil to being good. Rather they are exalting a righteousness which they have come to realize Has always been there)
1 Corinthians 4:4
For I know of nothing against myself, yet I am not justified by this; but He who judges me is the Lord.
(Again, Paul is using this word in the sense of acquittal. The word dikaioo does not mean here for Paul to be made righteous when he is judged, rather to be shown righteous when he is judged)
These are all great examples, but I notice you left out some other verses that can indicate the opposite view:

Romans 2:13:
for it is not the hearers of the Law who are just before God, but the doers of the Law will be justified.
Those who do the law are justified, so it must be that they are made righteous–otherwise how could they “do the law”?

I mentioned Titus 3 in my other post today, so I won’t repeat that here.

However, I will say that this verse seems to indicate a once-for-all justification:
Romans 5:9
Much more then, having now been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from the wrath of God through Him.
This seems to indicate something final: Since we have been justified by His blood, we shall be saved. Period. Future salvation guaranteed.

“Was not our father Abraham justified by works*** when*** He offered up Isaac on the altar” (James 2:24-25)
**This is not teaching that Abraham was “made righteous” as if he was less righteous the moment before or that he is in the process where God is continually making him righteous. This is a faulty way of looking at it. Rather, Abraham himself was given a command by God and only when his completed the word of obedience was he then “justified” by God. He was found to pass God’s test and therefore merited the blessing. This justification of Abraham is a moment in Time. Notice the emphasis on “Abraham justified by works WHEN he offered up Isaac”. In other words, his works were already done before the justification occurred. Or we could say they happened at the same time. **

I agree that the works happened before justification. But you make it seem as if this were Abraham’s only moment of justification. He also had righteousness reckoned to him before this event: Gen. 15:6. Why was he justified twice?

Excuse the Caps

But finally, just look at the way it is used in Romans itself. “Only the doers of the law shall be justified…on the day of judgement” (Rom 2). This is a future declaration that AFTER A PERSONS WORKS are examined, they are shown to PASS THE JUDGEMENT. In the same way just a few verses before “Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh shall be justified in His sight” (Rom 3:20). HUMAN BEINGS ARE ALWAYS IN GOD’S SIGHT. THEREFORE THIS “SIGHT” MUST BE A SPECIFIC ONE, A JUDGING ONE, WHETHER PRESENT OR FUTURE. And the word “sight” lends more weight to the fact that it means “righteous from God’s perspective” which is much different than “CHANGED THEIR BEHAVIOR FROM BEING LESS RIGHTEOUS TO BEING MORE RIGHTEOUS IN GOD’s SIGHT”

Therefore, again, when it is said that we are “justified freely by his grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus” (Rom 3:24) and that “we are justified by His blood” (rom 5:9) that it is clearly referring to being put into a state of being innocent, freed from all reasons for condemnation or wrongdoing. A judgement of being in conformity with God’s standards.
 
Romans 2:14 teaches they were already righteous before being justified. Therefore it has no reference to a process or tradition of being made behaviorally righteousrighteous
 
And just like colossians 2:13-24) teaches, our being crucified and raised with christ is the ground for our forgiveness. Baptism washes away sin as well as renews. This is how I read Titus 3:7 . We are justified through regeneration because the cross is right there working to blot out our sins
 
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