K
Koineman
Guest
The sacrifice of Christ bought justification. The verse could be read that way, which is in accord with Catholic teaching. We are justified as a gift of grace through Christ’s redemption. This verse doesn’t say whether the justification involves “make righteous” or “consider righteous.” Either one could be interpreted in this verse.Well, that is a good question.
What is the acquittal based off of? A internal righteousness or an alien righteousness?
Paul answers this question over and over again.
“…being justified as a gift of grace through the redemption which is in Christ Jesus, whom God put forward as a propitiation by His blood to be received through faith…” (Rom 3:24-25)
The ground of this “justification” is not stated, here anyway, in any other terms than the sacrifice of Jesus. There is your answer.
In another place:
“it will imputed to us who believe in Him who raised our Lord Jesus from the dead, who was delivered up for our offenses, and was raised for our justification” (Rom 4:25).
This begs the question: Does impute here mean to consider righteous because of an alien righteousness or to consider righteous because of infused righteousness? As with the above verse, either one could be interpreted.Again, justification here is not grounded or even hinted as being involved with our good works. Justification is inextricably tied to Jesus death and resurrection. And that all Paul has to say!
“Much more having been justified by His blood, we shall be saved from wrath through Him” (Rom 5:9)
Yes, grounded in Christ’s blood. I don’t think Catholics would argue with that. But that doesn’t say whether the text means “made righteous by his blood” or “declared righteous by his blood.” Again, you have not answered the question.Again, the good works of believers is not even stated or hinted at. The word “justified” is used, and it is grounded in the “blood” of Jesus,
“For He made Him who knew no sin to be sin for us so that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him” (2 Corinthians 5:21)
That conclusion is not necessary. Both “we might be made righteous” or “we might be declared righteous” can be interpreted here.How did God make Christ to be sin? The same word “made” is used in both instances, either “made Him who knew no sin” or “that we might be made the righteousness of God in Him”. Therefore, I ask, how did God make Christ to be sin ? Did Christ become a sinner? No. Therefore, what does it mean that we are “made the righteousness of God in Him”? It must mean that we are acquitted or justified.
We are not made righteous by our own efforts or goodness; we are made righteous by Christ’s death. Again, this verse does not prove imputation of alien righteousness.“For if righteousness comes through the law, then Christ Jesus died in vain” (Gal 2:20)