C
Cathoholic
Guest
LatinRight.
In post 861 you said . . .
Why?
Because the premise of Jesus drawing all men to Himself (an act of prevenient grace) is a DIFFERENT premise than that regarding “salvation”.
Jesus DOES draw all men to Himself. Jesus goes beyond that by redeeming all humanity too. But by free will some still reject these gifts. There is no salvation for them.
In post 861 you said . . .
Then in post 862 you asked if I thought it was correct reasoning?FOURTH LINE OF REASONING – I will draw all people to myself/Universal Salvation, which is the will of God.
The answer is “no” it is not correct reasoning…Do you think Cathoholic the third line of reasoning is correct or the fourth and the fifth lines of reasoning correct?
Why?
Because the premise of Jesus drawing all men to Himself (an act of prevenient grace) is a DIFFERENT premise than that regarding “salvation”.
You are ASSUMING they are the same. This is wrong.FOURTH LINE OF REASONING – I will draw all people to myself/Universal Salvation, which is the will of God.
Jesus DOES draw all men to Himself. Jesus goes beyond that by redeeming all humanity too. But by free will some still reject these gifts. There is no salvation for them.