B
Bishopite
Guest
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THE REASON that Jesus says “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me” is because He is QUOTING Psalm 22:2; and in both instances, Jesus does not utter this quote in Greek, but in Hebrew (in Matthew’s version) and/or Aramaic (in Mark’s version). So, it is not the same term used by Thomas in John’s Gospel at all. Also, the reason that Jesus utters this quote from Psalm 22 is NOT because He is someone different from God, but rather because He is speaking as the prophesied Suffering Servant (the Jewish Messiah) Who has taken the sins of all mankind upon Himself, and so is speaking AS A MAN at this point. The words of Jesus (quoting the Psalm) are the words of every sinner like you and myself who is isolated from God (see 2 Corinth 5:21).

**BibleSteve;2327103
Phil 2:5-7
- Why did Jesus say “that all authority has been GIVEN to me in heaven
and on earth”? Matt. 28:18, Dan. 7:13, 14 (similar)
Must be the flawed WT translation, my Bibles don’t use those words.
- Why did he have godly fear? Heb. 5:7
Another redundancy, see Phil 2:5-7 Jesus emptied Himself being born of a woman Luke 1:31
- How could he learn obedience and be made perfect? Heb. 5:8-9
Phil 2:5-7
- Why would an angel be able to strengthen him or angels minister to him?
Luke 22:43, Matt. 4:11
For an example to us.
- Why would Satan try to tempt him if he KNEW that he was GOD?
Matt. 4:1-11
Phil 2:5-7 I would quote the WT translation but it butchered the text so badly I can’t allow any civil person to read it.
- Jesus when sent to the earth was made to “be Lower” than the angels.
Heb. 2:7. How could any part of a God Head EVER be lower than the
angels?
Uh…Jesus could be tempted but He could yield to any sin because He was/is the same nature as God.
- Then if Jesus was the same as God, who was he being tempted to rebel
against? Could God be tempted to rebel against himself? Matt. 4:1
I’m not aware of God ever deserting Himself in sacred Scripture or sacred Tradition, but I am aware of God being three persons, one God.
- Near the end of his earthly life, Jesus cried out “My God, why have you forsaken me?” Matt. 27:46 Can God desert or forsake himself?
THE REASON that Jesus says “My God, my God, why have you forsaken me” is because He is QUOTING Psalm 22:2; and in both instances, Jesus does not utter this quote in Greek, but in Hebrew (in Matthew’s version) and/or Aramaic (in Mark’s version). So, it is not the same term used by Thomas in John’s Gospel at all. Also, the reason that Jesus utters this quote from Psalm 22 is NOT because He is someone different from God, but rather because He is speaking as the prophesied Suffering Servant (the Jewish Messiah) Who has taken the sins of all mankind upon Himself, and so is speaking AS A MAN at this point. The words of Jesus (quoting the Psalm) are the words of every sinner like you and myself who is isolated from God (see 2 Corinth 5:21).
Jesus was born in a natural birth after emptying Himself taking on the form and likeness of men, so He grew in knowledge as a human It would be something like us going to be an ant and taking on the form and nature of the ant; the only difference is Jesus was infinite coming into finite, if we became an ant (hypothetically speaking) we would only be the finite within the finite, so Jesus’ act far surpasses that as He gave up (temporarily) eternity to enter time in order to die for our sins and resurrect into heaven.
- Heb. 5:8 says that Jesus learned obedience! To whom would he obey if he was GOD? And Does God need to LEARN anything?