King James Only?

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po18guy said:
You are protestant
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Thanks for letting me know.
and that is a very protestant idea.
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Thanks for the compliment.
We are parts of Christ’s Body
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Correct.
if you believe Paul. If we cannot offer propitiation with Christ, to the Father while being parts of His Son;s Body, then why do we belong to that Body? What use penance, then? You are not a Calvinist. correct?
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Do you have an authoritative source for your claim that we offer propitiation with Christ? Did the Church Fathers believe this? Why would Jesus go to the Cross if we can just save ourselves by co-operating with God?

The purpose of penance is sanctification, not justification, which is why we do our penances after the priest has pronounced Absolution.
 
Indifferently said:
Do you have an authoritative source for your claim that we offer propitiation with Christ? Did the Church Fathers believe this? Why would Jesus go to the Cross if we can just save ourselves by co-operating with God?
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Francis Cardinal Arinze, in his book Celebrating the Holy Eucharist, pages 14 and 15. We offer propitiation for sin as part of the mass, in which we are active participants.

Do you believe that, as members of Christ’s Body, there is some aspect of Christ’s mission that we cannot participate in?
 
po18guy said:
Francis Cardinal Arinze, in his book Celebrating the Holy Eucharist, pages 14 and 15. We offer propitiation for sin as part of the mass, in which we are active participants.

Do you believe that, as members of Christ’s Body, there is some aspect of Christ’s mission that we cannot participate in?
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Which among the Fathers does the Cardinal quote as his authoritative source?
 
I was once presented with this notion once by a committed protestant. Who insisted (very angrily too I might add) that if it is not from the King James Version then it is not of God.

So, I politely asked him to show me where it says it in the KJV. Is there a chapter and verse where it says that? He looked at me, and…said no. Sheepishly I might add, since he immediately knew where I was going with my point.

So, I went there anyway. I asked him, “You said that if it is not from the King James Version, then it is not of God. I said, what you just said is not written in there. So, what am I to conclude, based on your own words?”

So, he said it was ridiculous to think it would be written in there. I said to him what was truly ridiculous was the notion that the ONLY TRUE WORD OF GOD would be printed in 1611. I said it was truly ridiculous to think that Christ would never suggest any of that, considering the fact that the ONLY TRUE word would come out a millenia and a half after He rose.

Oh, and other than the fact the supposed ONLY TRUE WORD came out in 1611, which version of the KJV is the true word? The original one? The original KJV included the 7 Deuterocanonicals of the OT. Does that KJV count? Or not?

So, no prophet, Christ or any other means even hinted that only TRUE WORD OF GOD would be printed in 1611 and would be written in the Kings English? Rather crucial prophecy?

Yet another claim of certain protestants that does not hold up to scrutiny.

Next.
 
yogosans14 said:
I watched some videos on KJVonlyists and why they believe its the 100% word of God and they think all other Bibles out there are corrupt.

The KJV is beautiful and poetic but isnt the Douay Rhiems just as good?

What do you think of it Catholics?
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Great,

When you put that together with the Church that has 100% of God’s teachings then you are in…
 
How do such people get over the fact that the Authorized Version clearly states that the Church is governed by bishops?
 
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