King James Onlyism

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And I do have a KJV with all the books in it (I have a Cambridge KJV with Apocrypha and a 1611 reprint.).
The point about the KJV is that it changed radically over the centuries. How can readers trust that the current version is truthful?

Or is what is in question only the allure of the language? How did style get separated from substance in the pursuit of truth? Is it truth which is being pursued?
 
The point about the KJV is that it changed radically over the centuries. How can readers trust that the current version is truthful?

Or is what is in question only the allure of the language? How did style get separated from substance in the pursuit of truth? Is it truth which is being pursued?
There are places where King James’s men probably did make poor choices–as the purveyors of modern translations point out, they didn’t have the benefit of current research into Biblical Hebrew, Greek, and Aramaic (as someone else pointed out, the language that modern translators have trouble handling is English). The KJV isn’t the sink of errors that a lot of Catholic apologists paint it as, but it could probably benefit from certain revisions, and has in fact–but then, you seem to say that such revisions count as a point against its truthfulness! Can’t win, I guess.

And “the allure of the language” isn’t the only thing in question, but as a question, I’d say it’s a legitimate and relevant one. Part of the distaste that a lot of readers feel towards the NIV, NRSV, ETC, is based on the sense that these translations proceed from the same sort of spirit that pervades Evangelical and, since the 20th century, many Catholic attitudes towards church architecture and liturgy: the unspoken sentiment that there’s something inherently meretricious about beauty–that the more pedestrian or downright clunky the wording/building/expression of faith, the truer and more sincere it must be. Now there’s a separation of style from substance, if you like. Saying that the language of a Bible is germane to the effect of its truth on the reader, though, strikes me as a wholesome attempt to reacquaint the two.
 
The point about the KJV is that it changed radically over the centuries. How can readers trust that the current version is truthful?
Radical? Like the difference between the New World Translation and the KJV, or Geneva to KJV radical?
 
Radical? Like the difference between the New World Translation and the KJV, or Geneva to KJV radical?
No. Like taking books out. And putting them back in. Like taking parts of books out. And putting them back in. That what I meant. That’s essentially what I said.
 
Le Cracquere:
The KJV isn’t the sink of errors that a lot of Catholic apologists paint it as, but it could probably benefit from certain revisions, and has in fact–but then, you seem to say that such revisions count as a point against its truthfulness! Can’t win, I guess.
It’s difficult to ‘win’ when you attempt to reformulate what someone says and then get caught.

Taking books out and putting them back gives pause as to which version is correct.
Le Cracquere:
And “the allure of the language” isn’t the only thing in question, but as a question, I’d say it’s a legitimate and relevant one.
It can be legitimate, but not necessarily so. You would have to demonstrate that it is necessarily legitimate
Le Cracquere:
the unspoken sentiment that there’s something inherently meretricious about beauty–that the more pedestrian or downright clunky the wording/building/expression of faith, the truer and more sincere it must be.
I don’t believe I made that claim.
Le Cracquere:
Now there’s a separation of style from substance, if you like. Saying that the language of a Bible is germane to the effect of its truth on the reader, though, strikes me as a wholesome attempt to reacquaint the two.
It can be. But on the other hand it can also be sound and fury signifying nothing.

I am simply saying that your point has merit, but it has not yet been fully made.
 
No. Like taking books out. And putting them back in. Like taking parts of books out. And putting them back in. That what I meant. That’s essentially what I said.
Understood. The 1640 Geneva Bible is the first English Bible to not include the Apocrypha.
You are also aware, and you probably are but not all of our readers would be, that the Apocrypha was not considered canonical by the Church of England or the KJV translators in 1611 when it was included in the Authorized Version?
 
It’s difficult to ‘win’ when you attempt to reformulate what someone says and then get caught.

Taking books out and putting them back gives pause as to which version is correct.
Ah, my mistake. Is it the Deuterocanon you’re referring to? Well, I imagine that a Catholic would tend to prefer the version that has the Deuterocanonical books as more “correct.” But one doesn’t think of those pocket Psalms/Proverbs/NT Bibles as being “incorrect” for lacking most of the Old Testament–just whittled down. A more complete Bible can be had if that’s what the reader wants, and the same for the KJV.
It can be legitimate, but not necessarily so. You would have to demonstrate that it is necessarily legitimate.
I guess you’ve got a point, but depending on how ironclad you want my argument, demonstrating it could take a book. How’s this: if one concedes that some degree of beauty is fitting in cathedrals, liturgies, vestments, sacred music, etc., then it is as fitting that the language of the Bible be beautiful within the demands of responsible translation (and yes, I know what a can of worms those last six words comprise). If you don’t concede such a thing, then you’re not necessarily out of line, but you would certainly be endorsing a radical separation of style and substance–which is what I thought you were inveighing against in the first place.
I don’t believe I made that claim.
I’m sorry; didn’t mean to imply that you did. I was just offering that as an example of why a Bible translation’s aesthetic value might be considered significant and worth upholding.
It can be. But on the other hand it can also be sound and fury signifying nothing.
I am simply saying that your point has merit, but it has not yet been fully made.
I suppose I should thank you for not including the “tale told by an idiot” part in your quote! Well, perhaps in my spare time I can try to flesh out my arguments–but I’d be surprised to learn that they hadn’t already been made elsewhere by someone abler than I am. Anyone know of any treatises on aesthetics and the Word?
 
Le Cracquere:
Well, I imagine that a Catholic would tend to prefer the version that has the Deuterocanonical books as more “correct.”
No. I guess I meant that a work has to have integrity – whether that be artistic integrity or any other kind of integrity – over time. The KJV reverses its position over time. A merging of those horizons would have to be from a non-KJV source (thus making the KJV insufficient).

:doh2: :rotfl:
Le Cracquere:
I guess you’ve got a point, but depending on how ironclad you want my argument, demonstrating it could take a book.
Maybe not.
Le Cracquere:
How’s this: if one concedes that some degree of beauty is fitting in cathedrals, liturgies, vestments, sacred music, etc., then it is as fitting that the language of the Bible be beautiful within the demands of responsible translation (and yes, I know what a can of worms those last six words comprise).
I don’t mean to oppose your point of view just for the sake of opposing it. I actually agree with you that true things are beautiful things. I am merely trying to introduce some rigour to the questions we ask ourselves. Perhaps this is something I myself am struggling with. What is beauty? And what is merely flashiness? Can ugliness have beauty because it has integrity? Can beauty be ugly because it has no integrity?

Someone who grew up on the same street as I speaks of a neon blue cross that he would see at night. And I remember it. Perhaps it is no longer there or never was there. But it surely qualifies as a modernist eyesore. However it did have beauty. Why? Because it had integrity. Because it reflected the time in which it stood as well as the timelessness from whence it came. Because it was true even though it used a medium associated with flashiness and worldliness.

Is Joseph Beuy’s Fat on Chair not superficially ugly? But graced with an interior beauty and truth?

There are a few discussions on aesthetics on the Moral Theology Forum. They have to do with nudity in art. One is very old. I don’t even remember saying what I apparently did say. The other is much more recent. So rather than derail this thread, why don’t we continue our discussion on that thread?
Le Cracquere:
I’m sorry; didn’t mean to imply that you did. I was just offering that as an example of why a Bible translation’s aesthetic value might be considered significant and worth upholding.
I happen to agree with you. But the reader must also take some responsibility for sharpening his perception.
Le Cracquere:
I suppose I should thank you for not including the “tale told by an idiot” part in your quote!
Ha! Ha! If the truth be known, I forgot that part and I would not imply it anyway. No worries.
Le Cracquere:
Anyone know of any treatises on aesthetics and the Word?
Good man. If we don’t get any answers maybe we can start a thread on that subject. What say? 🙂
 
To those that believe in KJO, and I know there is at least one on here. What exactly do you mean? I will give you my understanding, please correct me if I am misrepresenting KJO.

My Understanding is that…
  1. The only valid bible is the King James. Yep, that’s been my experience with knowing some who believe KJO
  2. ALL other versions of the bible are faulty at bestRighto
  3. The King James Version was divinely guided when translated.With the people I’ve spoken with, this is true, though it may not be according to others
  4. (heard of this bumper sticker) If it aint the KJV it Aint the bible!
Problems…
  1. How can KJ be the only valid bible? Are there no valid French? Spanish? German? Chinese… etc Bibles? r does it jsut mean that it is the only version valid for english
  2. Where did the idea of KJO come from. Not even the original translators preached this.
  3. Which version of the KJV? The Original still contained the Deuterocannonical (sp). Or is it the Adulterers bible? Or is it just the Version we have today (keep in mind, I understand that all versions of the bible have had ‘printing press issues’ and thus, mistakes were made, but corrected)
  4. Why is it that Historians trace the history of KJO only back to 1881.
en.wikipedia.org/wiki/King-James-Only_Movement
(i know wiki isn’t the greatest reference point, but it is still a valid complaint)
5) Most importantly… What about the people prior to 1611?

Anyway… If I am misrepresenting your belief, please correct me. If I am not misrepresenting your understanding, please, help me understand why you feel KJV is the only valid bible…

In Christ
Living in the South & our Bible belt here, there are A LOT of KJO adherents. In fact, I used to date one and I attended the church that he was a member of a couple of times (A LOOOONG TIME AGO).
Here’s what I got. I took a Bible with me one Sunday there and it happened to be an “Angel” themed Bible. It was KJV but it just had little facts and pictures and poems about angels in it. He promptly grabbed it out of my hand and said he was making sure it was a KJV b/c if it wasn’t then more than likely the ushers at the door would take it away.:eek: :eek: :eek: Bit extreme don’t ya think!

Also, most of the people I know who adhere to KJO, truly believe that the KJV of the Bible literally fell out of the sky from God. Some do not even believe that Anyone other than God wrote it. They think that God spoke it to someone and they wrote it down in English and that was it.

Most of the KJO I have come across have been very close minded and very defensive of their faith. I’m going to try to make this as nice as I can, but I also find that the ones who are in teh KJO congregations (not necessarily the ministers) around my area tend to be poorly educated in anything so they don’t realize the history of the KJV or other versions of the Bible, at not fault of their own sometimes. I almost feel sorry for them becuase they will constantly be simply “following the leader” and the leader, in this case, may be wrong.

But I guess they could say the same thing about us Catholics and the Pope! 😃
 
**From the KJB:

James 1:27
Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world.

John 14:18
I will not leave you comfortless: I will come to you.

Both ‘fatherless’ and ‘comfortless’ are translations from the original greek word Orphanos (or-fan-os’). We get our common word orphan from it.

Why did the translaters of the KJB translate the same greek word in one verse ‘fatherless’ and in another ‘comfortless’? I don’t know. I do know that if God does not put the hunger for learning the truth in you, you are not one of his ‘little ones’.**
 
Most of the KJO I have come across have been very close minded and very defensive of their faith. I’m going to try to make this as nice as I can, but I also find that the ones who are in teh KJO congregations (not necessarily the ministers) around my area tend to be poorly educated in anything so they don’t realize the history of the KJV or other versions of the Bible, at not fault of their own sometimes. I almost feel sorry for them becuase they will constantly be simply “following the leader” and the leader, in this case, may be wrong.

But I guess they could say the same thing about us Catholics and the Pope! 😃
Well, we never been much into that fancy book learnin…
 
I do know that if God does not put the hunger for learning the truth in you, you are not one of his ‘little ones’.
I am not following you. Could you explain?

It seems to me that God gave humans free will. In order for humans to exercise free will, they have to have the faculties of observation and reason. This I propose roughly equates to a hunger for the truth.

You seem to be suggesting that God gives some folks the faculties of observation and reason but does not give other folks the same. That would make some folks human and some other folks not human.

And that strikes me as highly strange.

Was the Gospel not intended for all? Those who choose Jesus are the little ones? Those who do not choose Him are not the little ones?

Or are you suggesting the God predestined those whom He would save? Could you explain please?
 
Well, we never been much into that fancy book learnin…
Hmmm, but St. Paul plainly tells St. Timothy “Carefully study to present thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth.”

It nowhere says the Bible alone and Paul was a man of great study.

King James “Onlyism” is weak at best. If those who think it’s the greatest of all translations were serious then they’d use the original 1611 text which contained all 73 books, and not the abridged version that didn’t even come into existence until the late 1800s.

But I hear preachers proclaim with fiery conviction that they preach only from “the 1611 King James Bible” when in fact it’s not true.

One who carefully studies “to present thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth” would know that and either use only the full text of the 1611 edition or change their tune in order to be honest.
 
Hmmm, but St. Paul plainly tells St. Timothy "Carefully study to present thyself approved unto God, a workman that needeth not to be ashamed, rightly handling the word of truth.
I would not think I would need more contextual clues outside of “fancy book learnin…” to indicate the intent of my post.
King James “Onlyism” is weak at best. If those who think it’s the greatest of all translations were serious then they’d use the original 1611 text which contained all 73 books, and not the abridged version that didn’t even come into existence until the late 1800s.
 
Of course. As long as they understand the Apocrypha was not considered canonical, anymore than the maps and such are now. The Church of England’s thirty nine articles mirrors the views of the translators, as well as the prefaces to the Great Bible and the Geneva Bible. Understanding that belief in the preservation of scripture does not require the translators to be award of their unique role in perfectly perserving God’s word.
Yeah right… better go look at the history of the early church conferences about the canon.

Try some research on the Councils of Hippo and Carthage.
 
Yeah right… better go look at the history of the early church conferences about the canon.

Try some research on the Councils of Hippo and Carthage.
I am not referring to the Roman Catholic church view of the canon. They are not the ones who translated the KJV, which is our topic. Not some early regional synods by North Africans.
We are discussing the KJV. Be careful about staying on topic.
 
I am not referring to the Roman Catholic church view of the canon. They are not the ones who translated the KJV, which is our topic. Not some early regional synods by North Africans.
We are discussing the KJV. Be careful about staying on topic.
I am on topic…the KJV lacks 7 books and parts of others that were canonized by the church many centuries before 1611.

This is a fundamental and historical fact, as is the fact that copies of the actual 1611 edition of the King James Bible had all 73 books in it and they were not edited out by the translators but by some Bible Society in the 1800s.

Those regional synods carry more authority as to what the early church considered inspired canon that anyone involved with the KJV.

Who was actually closer to the apostles and therefore better informed as to what was accepted as inspired canon? Even correspondence among the churches prior to that time names the DCs as inspired. I won’t follow a group of rebellious men who concoct new winds of doctrines for the itching ears of their adherents because their teachings contradict not only the Bible, but 1500 years of consistent teaching and belief of the Christian Church.

Heck… the KJV can’t even escape the fact that it includes a doxology as part of the Lord’s Prayer that is not in any of the earliest manuscripts, and is taken from an early church non-canonical document. Though Christian, it is not part of the New Testament and was never meant to be…yet virtually every n-C I know adds “For thine is the kingdom, the power, and the glory, forever and ever.” to the end of that prayer. All because someone errantly added it to the text of the KJV.

No thanks. I’ll keep my Douay-Rheims Bible and RSV-CE.
 
I don’t mean to oppose your point of view just for the sake of opposing it. I actually agree with you that true things are beautiful things. I am merely trying to introduce some rigour to the questions we ask ourselves. Perhaps this is something I myself am struggling with. What is beauty? And what is merely flashiness? Can ugliness have beauty because it has integrity? Can beauty be ugly because it has no integrity?

…If we don’t get any answers maybe we can start a thread on that subject. What say? 🙂
Sounds good (and sorry for taking a while to respond). Whichever one of us is right here, and however valid our mutual concerns, I’m starting to suspect that these issues are sort of oblique to the average KJV-Onlyer, and hence to the thread.
 
Your Bible was canonized at Trent, your own documents say this.
Better go look again. Trent only affirmed what previous councils had already stated.
Not a problem, as long as one recognizes that those books are not part of our canon and were not considered such by Christians at that time.
Not true. The DCs were canon long before the “reformers”.
From your group, of course. For us, no.
All this means is that you are verifiably wrong.
Chronology? Well that would be the Jews of 90 AD who did not include the Apocrypha if you wish to go that misguided route.
A “council” that was not a council consisting of men without the authority to settle anything at all. To this day the Jews don’t even consider that of any authority.

Moreover, you rely for reason on a conclave of the same leaders that rejected Our Lord Jesus Christ? Seems like those who use this are desperate for any authority, no matter how carnal minded, in order to justify their error.
More like of 1300 years of supressed Christian truth.
An inaccurate rhetorical statement that has no Biblical or historical basis. You can allege this, but it is nothing more than baseless anti-Catholic propaganda. It is also best dealt with in a thread of it’s own.

If it’s true then you should have substantial historical evidence that irrefutably proves it. I challenge you to open a thread and supply all this so called evidence to prove it.

I don’t believe you can do it because such evidence does not exist, but if it is true then it would surely force all us Catholics to abandon the faith. So…if you have all this evidence…provide it, or admit that it’s just rhetoric and propaganda you heard from some man.
I just got done reading the post from itsjustdave that says it was included in early texts…Regardless, of course it is in the Didache, its part of the Christian church from the beginning, but most importantly, its included in the perfectly perserved word of God, which is the KJV.
So then KJV translators were infallible? So an error made by those men makes it inspired?
Just in case you change your mind.
Not likely.
 
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