Labor pains and original sin

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Our lady was free from original sin. But I don’t think it precluded suffering. She suffered at the foot of the cross.
Correct. Mary being personally free from original sin, as well as personally sinless in life, never excluded her from suffering just as a normal human woman in this world would suffer.
 
There are a few Marian dogmas including the physical integrity of Mary in the Virgin Birth: it was miraculous.
Miraculous “physical integrity” of Mary remaining a virgin after birth does not mean she gave birth without any pain, nor does it mean that Jesus would have had to have been born in some manner other than the normal way babies come down the birth canal. God who can do all things could have easily preserved Mary’s physical integrity while having Jesus be born in the normal way. We also have no idea if God’s way of letting Mary give birth caused her physical pain or not. She could very well have suffered painful contractions of labor prior to Jesus being born.
 
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Vico:
There are a few Marian dogmas including the physical integrity of Mary in the Virgin Birth: it was miraculous.
Miraculous “physical integrity” of Mary remaining a virgin after birth does not mean she gave birth without any pain, nor does it mean that Jesus would have had to have been born in some manner other than the normal way babies come down the birth canal. God who can do all things could have easily preserved Mary’s physical integrity while having Jesus be born in the normal way. We also have no idea if God’s way of letting Mary give birth caused her physical pain or not. She could very well have suffered painful contractions of labor prior to Jesus being born.
Physical integrity means like light through glass.
 
Even if we accept the “light through glass” interpretation, which many do not (the document says “Physical Integrity”, not “Light through Glass”, which I believe came from the writings of a later Pope), it still does not mean Mary definitely did not suffer labor pains, or pains of some sort.

We have had this discussion many times before on CAF. The dogma is that Mary’s virginity was preserved while Jesus was born. No one is disputing that here.

How God accomplished this from a physical standpoint, and whether Mary felt labor pain, etc is not dogma. Even those who defend the “Mary had no pain” viewpoint, like Tim Staples, agree that the Church has not definitively spoken to the issue.

It is a pious tradition to believe that she did not have pain, not dogma.
 
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Even if we accept the “light through glass” interpretation, which many do not (the document says “Physical Integrity”, not “Light through Glass”, which I believe came from the writings of a later Pope), it still does not mean Mary definitely did not suffer labor pains, or pains of some sort.

We have had this discussion many times before on CAF. The dogma is that Mary’s virginity was preserved while Jesus was born. No one is disputing that here.

How God accomplished this from a physical standpoint, and whether Mary felt labor pain, etc is not dogma. Even those who defend the “Mary had no pain” viewpoint, like Tim Staples, agree that the Church has not definitively spoken to the issue.

It is a pious tradition to believe that she did not have pain, not dogma.
Yes, opinion only, no definition so no denial, rather allowing for that opinion.
 
Sure. I don’t have any problem with people expressing this belief about Mary had no pain. I remember reading the “passed through Mary’s body like light through a window” teaching myself as a child in a pious traditional book. (Since I was about age 6 at the time - I was a very advanced reader - this caused me to picture baby Jesus as sort of “beaming out” of Mary’s stomach and rematerializing on the outside, like on “Star Trek” which was popular on network TV then. Which very well might have been just how it occurred.)

We just have to be careful what we call “dogma”, as if it’s dogma, that means all members of the church must believe/ accept it in order to be in the Church.
 
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We just have to be careful what we call “dogma”, as if it’s dogma, that means all members of the church must believe/ accept it in order to be in the Church.
This is the point. If I were reading the intent of this thread to be is the feeling of labor pains by the BVM dogma, I’d say this thread has run its course and should simply be shut down…if the further discussion is desired, it should be opened under a new thread.
 
The light through glass analogy, among others, is found in the Roman Catechism:
But as the Conception itself transcends the order of nature, so also the birth of our Lord presents to our contemplation nothing but what is divine.

Besides, what is admirable beyond the power of thoughts or words to express, He is born of His Mother without any diminution of her maternal virginity, just as He afterwards went forth from the sepulchre while it was closed and sealed, and entered the room in which His disciples were assembled, the doors being shut; or, not to depart from every苓ay examples, just as the rays of the sun penetrate without breaking or injuring in the least the solid substance of glass, so after a like but more exalted manner did Jesus Christ come forth from His mother’s womb without injury to her maternal virginity.
The CCC is more to the point:
499 The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man.154 In fact, Christ’s birth "did not diminish his mother’s virginal integrity but sanctified it."155
The quote in the above passage is from Vatican II’s Lumen gentium. If we look at the footnote for its statement, we see the following reference:

S. Ambrosius, De inst. virg.: PL 16, 320.

That work of St. Ambrose says:
“Then he brought me back to the outer gate of the sanctuary, facing the east; but it was closed. He said to me: ‘This gate is to remain closed; it is not to be opened for anyone to enter by it; since the Lord, the God of Israel, has entered by it, it shall remain closed’” (Ezekiel 44)… Who is this gate, if not Mary? Is it not closed because she is a virgin? Mary is the gate through which Christ entered this world, when he was brought forth in the virginal birth, and the manner of His birth did not break the seals of virginity (quando virginali fusus est partu, et genitalia virginitatis claustra non solvit)…. There is a gate of the womb, although it is not always closed; indeed only one was able to remain closed, that through which the One born of the Virgin came forth without the loss of genital intactness (per quam sine dispendio claustrorum genitalium virginis partus exivit).
Also cited is the 3rd canon of the Lateran Council of 649, which Pope Martin I gave universal force:
Canon 3. If anyone does not properly and truly confess in accord with the holy Fathers, that the holy Mother of God and ever Virgin and immaculate Mary in the earliest of the ages conceived of the Holy Spirit without seed, namely, God the Word Himself specifically and truly, who was born of God the Father before all ages, and that she incorruptibly bore Him, her virginity remaining indestructible even after His birth, let him be anathema.
The Tome of St. Leo is also cited:
Doubtless then, He was conceived of the Holy Spirit within the womb of His Virgin Mother, who brought Him forth without the loss of her virginity, even as she conceived Him without its loss.
 
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Please note that, while the Roman Catechism might carry with it the possibility of accurately transmitting authoritative doctrine, liturgical standards and the Summa do not, per se.
I think the liturgy has more authority than you give it credit. We worship in spirit and truth, not error. The law of prayer is the law of belief. As the CCC notes:
1124 The Church’s faith precedes the faith of the believer who is invited to adhere to it. When the Church celebrates the sacraments, she confesses the faith received from the apostles - whence the ancient saying: lex orandi, lex credendi (or: legem credendi lex statuat supplicandi according to Prosper of Aquitaine [5th cent.]).45 The law of prayer is the law of faith: the Church believes as she prays. Liturgy is a constitutive element of the holy and living Tradition.46
 
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  1. In Genesis 3:16, because of the original sin in the Garden of Eden, women are thereafter going to bring forth children only with pain.
  2. In Revelation 12, the woman wailing aloud in pain as she labors to give birth is the same woman long held to be the Blessed Virgin Mary.
  3. Mary was conceived immaculately, without original sin.
So, why was the woman in Revelation 12 wailing aloud in pain as she labored to give birth?
This question is a good occasion to note that the Catholic Church does not read scripture verses like fundamentalists, who read passages in isolation from the whole context, and in isolation from the wisdom of the Church, and in narrow modern contexts rather than accounting for the original context, and fails to take account of the various types of literature in the bible. The bible is a collection of books of various genres.
 
I don’t understand why it would have to be dogma that Mary’s virginity was preserved even though she gave birth. One becomes a ‘non-virgin’ by having sex, not by giving birth.
Although the two are inextricably linked (aside from the one major exception), they’re not the same mechanism.
 
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All good stuff and classic Catholic exegesis of the question. Something else to chew on would be a more modern minority view of Genesis 3:16-17.

If you look up the Hebrew the word translated “pain” here is itstsabon which can mean pain or toil. This word is actually used again in the next verse in reference to Adam: “…in toil (itstsabon) you shall eat it’s yield.”

If we continue to look at the Hebrew then the word translated “childbearing” or “childbirth” is literally “pregnancy and/or conception (herayon).”

So the idea may be that women will toil with conception and carrying children just as man toils to get plants to grow from the ground.

I realize that Jerome didn’t understand it that way as seen in the Clementine Vulgate’s translation of this word in two different ways: dolore in verse 16 and laboribus in verse 17, but it’s something to think about.
 
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Blessed Anna Katharina Emmerich in visions of life of Blessed Virgin Mary speaks about Mary, birth of Jesus WITHOUT pain and Mary’s predestination-how all of it happened. I recommend you to read a whole book, you would get many answers.

Online version: The Life of the Blessed Virgin Mary by Blessed Anne Catherine Emmerich
As discussed in detail on another thread recently, the alleged revelations of Blessed Anne Emmerich are unreliable because they are thought by the Vatican to have likely been written partly by Clemens Brentano rather than Blessed Anne.

Also, even if they came from Blessed Anne, they’re unapproved private revelations and we are not permitted to post material from unapproved private revelations (Content rule 6 in the Forum FAQ).
 
I don’t understand why it would have to be dogma that Mary’s virginity was preserved even though she gave birth. One becomes a ‘non-virgin’ by having sex, not by giving birth.
Although the two are inextricably linked (aside from the one major exception), they’re not the same mechanism.
I think hundreds and thousands of years ago, people had a much more mechanical concept of “virginity” than we do today. Nevertheless, in the case of Mary, I can see why belief in physical integrity would be important from a standpoint of removing any and all doubt.
 
I think the liturgy has more authority than you give it credit. We worship in spirit and truth, not error. The law of prayer is the law of belief.
I’m not denying that. However, I am denying what is being asserted here and which is not taught by the Church: liturgy doesn’t transmit doctrine.

There’s only so far I’m willing to go with this argument since, of course, it’s in the catechism. Interestingly, in the source for the CCC (the Latin), “die” and “suffer” have distinct footnotes. The footnote for suffering is Genesis 3:16. Two things come to mind:
  • this speaks only to suffering in childbirth
  • it speaks of an increase in toil, not an origin of it in sin.
But, that being said, I’m willing to step back from the “suffering” part of my response to @CatholicSooner. However, we’re going to have to talk a bit about his assertions:
  • on one hand, if we take “suffering” out of the equation, there’s still “pain” and “hunger”. Are we asserting that Adam and Eve never experienced hunger prior to the fall?
  • we might have to talk a bit about his assertion of Mary’s experience of “suffering”. How do we understand this in light of the fact of her Immaculate Conception and sinless life?
 
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Genesis315:
I think the liturgy has more authority than you give it credit. We worship in spirit and truth, not error. The law of prayer is the law of belief.
I’m not denying that. However, I am denying what is being asserted here and which is not taught by the Church: liturgy doesn’t transmit doctrine.

There’s only so far I’m willing to go with this argument since, of course, it’s in the catechism. Interestingly, in the source for the CCC (the Latin), “die” and “suffer” have distinct footnotes. The footnote for suffering is Genesis 3:16. Two things come to mind:
  • this speaks only to suffering in childbirth
  • it speaks of an increase in toil, not an origin of it in sin.
But, that being said, I’m willing to step back from the “suffering” part of my response to @CatholicSooner. However, we’re going to have to talk a bit about his assertions:
  • on one hand, if we take “suffering” out of the equation, there’s still “pain” and “hunger”. Are we asserting that Adam and Eve never experienced hunger prior to the fall?
  • we might have to talk a bit about his assertion of Mary’s experience of “suffering”. How do we understand this in light of the fact of her Immaculate Conception and sinless life?
This should make for an interesting discussion at the very least.
 
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