I’m actually surprised too that nobody in this thread briought up this myth before. Yes we all know that that’s the story put out by the emotional and illogical dictators of political correctness but it has no basis in historical fact.
Women were taking their hudsband’s surnames in medieval England and were free to own property, regraded as full citizens etc etc. It was only after the Protestant Revolt that these women’s rights were suppressed. It had nothiong to do with bride taking a groom’s surname which is and always was done for the obvious reason, so that the whole family would acvtually be seen as a family.
I’m sorry - sometimes I forget that not everyone on this forum lives in the US; I should have specified that the above were situations ocurring in my country.

Let me frank - I’ll be the first person to acknowledge that radical feminism and political correctness have overreached to the point of absurdity, and that patriarchy is not the horribly brutal monster it’s made out to be. However it’s also equally unjust of people who, in their opposition to anti-male feminism (admittedly with legitimate reason), would dismiss the very real oppression women experienced in the past as myth. As an aside, when you reference women in medieval times as free to own property, I have to ask you (and I’m being sincere - I really don’t know for sure) - were these property-owning women of the noble class? Because from all accounts I’ve read, this privilege was extended to a very small number of women, usually if they were unmarried or had no children or their sons were not of age.
But in regards to my comments, the fact that (in the US at least) women had very little direct control over their resources until such laws as the Homestead Act, and Married Women’s Property Act were passed. As I stated, it would have been natural
at that time for women to assume the husband’s name, for his name would have figured predominantly on all legal paperwork. The intent of my post was not to simply rant about oppression out of context to the subject of the thread, but merely to illustrate that the reasons a woman may have previously had to take her husband’s name are no longer valid, and that there is no logical basis for them to continue doing so if they choose not to.
Incidentally, it was in the Anglo colonies/states that this custom was prevalent. Prior to the addition of states like California and Texas, the western part of America was predominantly under the rule of the Spaniards. In these states, under Spanish law, married women were allowed to control their own property and assets. And coincidentally (or perhaps not?) women in Spain do not change their names after marriage, and their children receive the names of both parents. So it seems there might be a correlation between a woman’s retention of her name and her level of legal authority.
I have never a"thrown out the charge" of feminism. I regard feminism as a badge of honour and I am proud to say that my dear wife is a true feminist as I am too. (Of course I condemn as we all should the pseudo-feminism which asserts that any male who dares to utter a politically incorrect peep must be at least metaphorically speaking kicked in the groin.)
My wife is a fesity lady (one of the things that makes me love her so) who would never take a backward step in asserting her rights. But she would never dream of rejecting my surname.
I never referenced you directly in any of my comments, and the theme of feminism came up long before I posted, so the charge *was *thrown out, even if it wasn’t done by you. Not that I mind, though; I enjoy discussions on controversial issues, even when I disagree - that’s how we all learn, right?

And I am happy for you if your wife decided to take your name. I probably wouldn’t change mine, but I don’t dictate to other women what they should do in this regard.
Who said they are malicious? Not I? I’m sure their intentions ares quite innocent. a great saint said, the road to Hell is paved with good intentions. It’s what we do that matters, not just our intentions.