LDS and Catholic Differences

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What I meant was that you had nothing equivalent to the sacrifice of the mass.
Which is incomprehensible to me at least. Perhaps that is why we don’t have it.
But that is essentially bible study class, which is akin to any good Catechism program. Focusing on the LDS priesthood for a moment, what formal training in the LDS priesthood is given? Are there rubrics or liturgies to be learned?
We don’t believe this is necessary. What training did Peter have?

Incidentally, when I was an ordinance worker in the temple, I memorized material which would take several hours to present, but that is irrelevant to the discussion. I am sure many Catholics have memorized many many prayers and the entire mass, but that does not give them priesthood authority does it? Does a degree in theology and memorizing all the liturgies give you authority to say mass? Does a college education give you authority to say mass?

What is your point?
 
“Only the manner of offering is different?” That’s not enough to make it “different”? What precisely makes it “the same”? Ministry vs Himself, no cross, no blood, no link to the atonement by taking away sins, but the result is the real presence. Does mass take away sins? If it did I could see a better link.

I really do appreciate the effort, but I think I am hopeless on this point.

This quote says to me: “It is the same, but different”.

It is exactly the same to me as saying that the Trinity is three and one at the same time.

It is the whole “substance” vs “accidents” of scholastic philosophy all over again. AUGH!

The only difference between lead and gold are the “accidents”, but the “substance” is the same.

I mean I can totally understand it if it is symbolic or metaphorical, or the priest symbolically re-enacts the sacrifice, or something like that, but I am sure you don’t mean it that way.

All I see are contradictions.

I am sorry. Square peg round hole I guess.

Did I ever get a response on that Hebrews 7 scripture? I don’t think so. Oh I guess y’all got by by saying it was all “one sacrifice”?
The Eucharist, the Body/Blood/Soul/Divinity of Christ, does forgive venial sins. I don’t think you’re hopeless in this. The Holy Spirit will guide you and help you as you learn. 👍

I think the response to your Hebrews scripture was in post #431. 🙂
 
“Only the manner of offering is different?” That’s not enough to make it “different”? What precisely makes it “the same”? Ministry vs Himself, no cross, no blood, no link to the atonement by taking away sins, but the result is the real presence. Does mass take away sins? If it did I could see a better link.
The Mass itself does not absolve us of our sins, but, unless I am mistaken, partaking of the Eucharist does wash away venial sins. Can someone who’s been Catholic longer than I or knows better confirm this?

peace
 
The Mass itself does not absolve us of our sins, but, unless I am mistaken, partaking of the Eucharist does wash away venial sins. Can someone who’s been Catholic longer than I or knows better confirm this?

peace
But didn’t Jesus infinite atonement take away mortal sins too?

So it isn’t really the same sacrifice is it?
 
“Only the manner of offering is different?” That’s not enough to make it “different”? What precisely makes it “the same”? Ministry vs Himself, no cross, no blood, no link to the atonement by taking away sins, but the result is the real presence. Does mass take away sins? If it did I could see a better link.
Just on the last question, Catholics believe that the Eucharist can remit venial sins (as do all the sacraments for that matter), however of course mortal sins must be taken care of in confession (since one shouldn’t be partaking of the Eucharist in mortal sin anyway).
 
The Mass itself does not absolve us of our sins, but, unless I am mistaken, partaking of the Eucharist does wash away venial sins. Can someone who’s been Catholic longer than I or knows better confirm this?

peace
Yes, the Eucharist does remit venial sins. Mortal sins must be taken care of in confession.
 
The Mass itself does not absolve us of our sins, but, unless I am mistaken, partaking of the Eucharist does wash away venial sins. Can someone who’s been Catholic longer than I or knows better confirm this?

peace
You are correct! 🙂

From the Catechism: (emphasis mine)
The fruits of Holy Communion
1391 Holy Communion augments our union with Christ. The principal fruit of receiving the Eucharist in Holy Communion is an intimate union with Christ Jesus. Indeed, the Lord said: "He who eats my flesh and drinks my blood abides in me, and I in him."223 Life in Christ has its foundation in the Eucharistic banquet: "As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me."224
On the feasts of the Lord, when the faithful receive the Body of the Son, they proclaim to one another the Good News that the first fruits of life have been given, as when the angel said to Mary Magdalene, “Christ is risen!” Now too are life and resurrection conferred on whoever receives Christ.225
1392 What material food produces in our bodily life, Holy Communion wonderfully achieves in our spiritual life. Communion with the flesh of the risen Christ, a flesh "given life and giving life through the Holy Spirit,"226 preserves, increases, and renews the life of grace received at Baptism. This growth in Christian life needs the nourishment of Eucharistic Communion, the bread for our pilgrimage until the moment of death, when it will be given to us as viaticum.
1393 Holy Communion separates us from sin. The body of Christ we receive in Holy Communion is “given up for us,” and the blood we drink “shed for the many for the forgiveness of sins.” For this reason the Eucharist cannot unite us to Christ without at the same time cleansing us from past sins and preserving us from future sins:
 
cont. from previous postHow so? this is a clear "either/or’ situation. As you claim, the scriptures say that baptism is necessary for salvation, especially if the concept of original sin remains. The entire point of something being necessary is that if you don’t HAVE that ‘something,’ you don’t get whatever it is that it is necessary to have. Ergo, if you have to be baptised to be saved, then if you are not baptised, you are not saved. The opposite of ‘saved’ is ‘condemned’ in religious terms.
No. There is a very real difference. In the first instance, infants are not guilty of personal sin, because they lack the reasoning necessary to consciously reject God. It is personal sin that condemns us. Yet the scriptures clearly say baptism is necessary for salvation - i.e. Heaven. That’s what leads to the theological conundrum… what happens to babies who are not guilty of personal sin (so they do not merit Hell), yet die without baptism (which restores the personal relationship with the Father lost because of Adam’s sin)… Hence a “between” place of “limbo” NOT Hell was long ago posited by theologians. That is a very real conundrum that has been pondered for a long long time by theologians. Hence, the Church has recently re-iterated that “limbo” is not doctrine and that the salvation of infants is left in the hands of a merciful God. Can you now see it as a grey issue, rather than a dichotomy?
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dianaiad:
Since we believe that the death and resurrection of Jesus the Christ took CARE of that original sin (else why go to all that trouble?) then the only sins that need to be remitted are our own personal ones. In order for a sin to BE a sin, the sinner must be aware of the nature of the sin, aware that it is a sin, be able to control his actions…and do it anyway. (This, by the way, is a definition of ‘sin’ that Catholics and Mormons actually agree on. ) Since infants and tiny children (and some adults, for that matter) aren’t capable of DOING this, then why do they require baptism? They are utterly innocent and free of sin. That is our position on this, and the only problems that come with it are those brought by those who plug their own beliefs and requirements into our behavior.
The dilema arises from the apparent scriptural mandate of baptism as necessary for salvation (i.e. entry into Heaven). See my discussion above. Denial of Heaven is not the same as an affirmative condemnation to Hell.
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dianaiad:
If ‘original sin’ still applies, then you are correct. If it does not, then we are…and that is the true difference between our beliefs in this area, I think.
So, if a Hindu lives a life that (under her culture) is free from sin, and ends it by jumping into the funeral pyre of her dead husband… she goes to heaven? Can we really lead a life free from sin without the grace of Jesus Christ? And if not, where do LDS members believe they get the grace to live a life pleasing to God? By their own merits? By ordinances in the Temple? By some combination of the two? By just “being a good person?”
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dianaiad:
Actually, I’d call it full on Pelagianism, not ‘semi-Pelagianism’ if you are going to assign a name to it. The man was, after all, right. Semi-Pelagianism posits that humanity as a whole is ‘tainted by sin’ as if it were an outside poison. While we believe that the ‘natural man’ is indeed an ‘enemy to God,’ it’s not some outside source that is the problem. It is simply that we all tend to want to do that which is physically pleasant and physically rewarding rather than spiritually so, simply because the physical is so much THERE. It is immediate, and it DOES feel good, at least in the short run. However, just as we are all capable of choosing longer ranged rewards at the expense of short range ones (eventually…don’t expect a toddler to figure that out…) so can we CHOOSE to ask God to give us the strength…grace…to help us grow spiritually.
So, Jesus was just an example for how we are to live lives pleasing to God? Jesus and his work on the cross is not the sole basis upon which our salvation rests?
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dianaiad:
We can’t do it without Him, but it is always and only OUR choice whether to accept His grace. We can’t do that unless and until we know what it is we are doing. We don’t NEED it before that, do we?
This contradicts the pelagianism you embraced above. The pelagianism heresy completely denies the need for grace and posits that man can save himself without supernatural grace. If so, why baptize at all?
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dianaiad:
I understand that it is sometimes difficult, especially for the anti types out there who can’t see it, but there is a HUGE difference between teaching what WE believe to be true, and insulting and attacking what you believe to be true.
There’s also a huge difference between the “live and let live” espoused at the outset of this thread and the “your church is apostate” chorus I hear from many LDS members who seek to “attack what I believe” to support their own position. Indeed, the entire Mormon position - RESTORATION - *relies *upon a direct attack upon the Catholic faith.
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dianaiad:
We would rather say…that’s very Mormon of you. 😉 The thing is, truth is true no matter where you find it. Catholics aren’t all wrong…and neither are we.
My point was that the OP seemed to make some false assumptions about Catholic doctrine that were belied by his conclusion. But I agree with the general proposition that truth is always truth, wherever it resides. Thanks for jumping in. I appreciate your (name removed by moderator)ut.
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dianaiad:
Peace to you…
and also with you.

-Robert
 
According to Aquinas, venial sins are remitted not only in the Eucharist, but in all of the sacraments, since they involve an “infusion of grace”. So, the remitting of venial sins is not unique to the Eucharist among the sacraments.
 
Actually, if I understand the lessons we were taught in RCIA, in the Catholic Church laypersons can and do engage in the sacraments, at least some of them. Any Catholic can administer the sacrament of baptism to a person in an emergency situation where no priest is available.
This is true. Baptism is a sacrament that any - even non-Catholics - can administer in an emergency situation. However, it is normally imparted by the ministerial priesthood.
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MyzTek:
All Catholics present participate in the sacrament of the eucharist, though a priest officiates
Absolutely we participate in the sacrament. But the sacrament cannot take place without a validly consecrated priest.

MyzTek said:
(I never thought about it 'till now, but can a priest still consecrate the bread and wine if he is the only one present?).

Yes.
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MyzTek:
The congregation is expected to actively participate in the Mass. There may be parallels in some of the other five sacraments, but I am less sure where marriage, holy orders, confirmation, holy orders, and last rites are concerned.

peace,
MyzTek
Yes, of course everyone present is invited and encouraged to participate. But the authority for dispensing the sacraments (emergeny baptism excluded) lies exclusively with the priest to my understanding.

Peace,
Robert
 
Look people, I am honestly not here to knock anybody’s religion especially not Catholicism. My family is Catholic, and I was raised Catholic.

I am here to understand it all better, but I don’t think I ever will.

We all take things on faith. I mean the whole deal with Joseph Smith and the gold plates and angels and all is ridiculous on its face, and if I didn’t have a spiritual witness that it was true, I could never possibly believe it.

But there is an internal logic to it, once you accept the premises. It is not self-contradictory.

And it’s ok if we finally get to you saying something like “We don’t know, we cannot comprehend God with our finite minds, but I know it’s true because I have had a spiritual witness that it is true”.

I’m perfectly fine with that!

But just don’t expect me to suddenly think that will suddenly communicate it to me as if it is supposed to be logical, because in all my years on this earth, I have not seen a way to make Catholicism logical to me.

And I happen to need a faith that is logical. Based on faith- of course- but at least internally consistent with it’s precepts.

I have no problem with “mystery” if it is identified as such- but I don’t think you guys want to just leave it there.

Just say it is all a “mystery” and that is fine- just don’t try to argue logically on behalf of a mystery. THAT to me is not consistent.
 
Yes, of course everyone present is invited and encouraged to participate. But the authority for dispensing the sacraments (emergeny baptism excluded) lies exclusively with the priest to my understanding.

Peace,
Robert
In the West, a deacon (as well as the priest and bishop of course) can ordinarily administer baptism (i.e. in a non-emergency situation). Also, a deacon can be the “witness” of marriage, since Western theology says that the ministers of marriage are the man and woman, not the cleric. In the East, at least a priest is required for all sacraments (and only baptized persons can emergency baptize, in contrast to the Latin view)/

1623 According to Latin tradition, the spouses as ministers of Christ’s grace mutually confer upon each other the sacrament of Matrimony by expressing their consent before the Church. In the tradition of the Eastern Churches, the priests (bishops or presbyters) are witnesses to the mutual consent given by the spouses,124 but for the validity of the sacrament their blessing is also necessary.125
 
1393 Holy Communion separates us from sin. The body of Christ we receive in Holy Communion is “given up for us,” and the blood we drink “shed for the many for the forgiveness of sins.” For this reason the Eucharist cannot unite us to Christ without at the same time cleansing us from past sins and preserving us from future sins:
I agree!!! Difference in terminology but that’s about all.

OK now, if you want to understand the LDS position and how we are similar and different, take this quote and add to it “mortal sins”, do away with confession and you are VERY close to the Mormon doctrine of “the sacrament” which is a renewal of our baptismal covenants and takes away sin, in most cases, just as if we were re-baptized (assuming our attitude is right and we are repentant)

But that does not make a “sacrament service” a “sacrifice”.

That is the difference I am interested in.
 
Yes, the Eucharist and the Sacrament can both be sacrifices in the sense of a sacrifice of thanksgiving and praise, and “broken heart and contrite spirit”. However, as you know, it is important to make the distinction that the Mass is also a sacrifice in the sense that it is a re-presentation (in an “unbloody” way) of the sacrifice of Christ, and uses terminology such as “victim”. So, Christ is being sacrificed on the altar, however He is not being sacrificed again and again, but we travel back in time to Calvary, and He is sacrificed, in an unbloody way.

Again though, the sacrifice of thanksgiving and praise, and/or a broken heart and contrite spirit also make both of these rituals sacrifices.
I would not say it quite in this way. The sacrifice of the Mass is Christ’s once-for-all sacrifice at Calvary re-presented. He is not re-sacrificed at every mass. He is not sacrificed on the altar. He is made real and present under the appearance of bread and wine, and offered to God as the one acceptable sacrifice for sins. That is the sacrifice of the mass, and it is why there is/must always be an ordained priesthood in the Catholic Church - the mass. Because there is no such belief, and no such need, in Mormonism, there is really no need for an ordained priesthood. So, my question was, am I wrong. Are there sacrifices offered by the LDS priests? (and I’m not talking about sacrificing time and energy, nor am I talking about bringing contrite hearts to God) Is Christ offered and if so, how?
 
Look people, I am honestly not here to knock anybody’s religion especially not Catholicism. My family is Catholic, and I was raised Catholic.

I am here to understand it all better, but I don’t think I ever will.

We all take things on faith. I mean the whole deal with Joseph Smith and the gold plates and angels and all is ridiculous on its face, and if I didn’t have a spiritual witness that it was true, I could never possibly believe it.

But there is an internal logic to it, once you accept the premises. It is not self-contradictory.

And it’s ok if we finally get to you saying something like “We don’t know, we cannot comprehend God with our finite minds, but I know it’s true because I have had a spiritual witness that it is true”.

I’m perfectly fine with that!

But just don’t expect me to suddenly think that will suddenly communicate it to me as if it is supposed to be logical, because in all my years on this earth, I have not seen a way to make Catholicism logical to me.

And I happen to need a faith that is logical. Based on faith- of course- but at least internally consistent with it’s precepts.

I have no problem with “mystery” if it is identified as such- but I don’t think you guys want to just leave it there.

Just say it is all a “mystery” and that is fine- just don’t try to argue logically on behalf of a mystery. THAT to me is not consistent.
Call it a mystery? Some of my best friends are Catholic? Been trying to understand it for over a year and rejecting all explanations while at it? And I’ve seen you ‘not knocking’ Catholicism, if it would bruise it would be a major blood blister by now. :rolleyes:
 
I would not say it quite in this way. The sacrifice of the Mass is Christ’s once-for-all sacrifice at Calvary re-presented. He is not re-sacrificed at every mass. He is not sacrificed on the altar. He is made real and present under the appearance of bread and wine, and offered to God as the one acceptable sacrifice for sins.
Saying that the once and for all sacrifice is being re-presented on the altar is the same thing as saying that He is being sacrificed, just that it is not a “fresh/new” sacrifice or a “re-do”, but the same sacrifice as Calvary, in an unbloody manner. It is as if we are there at Calvary, according to the theology. The “victim” is the same (Jesus), and “the same Christ who offered himself once in a bloody manner on the altar of the cross is contained and is offered in an unbloody manner. . . this sacrifice is truly propitiatory.” (paragraph 1367 CCC). I agree that He is not re-sacrificed at the Mass, however He is sacrificed in the sense that we travel back in time to Calvary, and Jesus is sacrificed in an “unbloody” manner.
That is the sacrifice of the mass, and it is why there is/must always be an ordained priesthood in the Catholic Church - the mass. Because there is no such belief, and no such need, in Mormonism, there is really no need for an ordained priesthood. So, my question was, am I wrong. Are there sacrifices offered by the LDS priests? (and I’m not talking about sacrificing time and energy, nor am I talking about bringing contrite hearts to God) Is Christ offered and if so, how?
No, LDS do not have an equivalent to the sacrificial theology of the Mass (i.e. that Jesus’ sacrifice on the cross is re-presented in an unbloody manner on the altar).
 
It is as if we are there at Calvary, according to the theology.
This is, not surprisingly, similar to the way Jews understand Passover. To participate in the seder now is to experience the liberation of the original Passover.

(I say “not surprisingly” because this is exactly the way the New Testament talks about the Eucharist: “Christ our Passover has been sacrificed for us, therefore let us celebrate the festival, not with the old leaven, the leaven of malice and evil, but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.”)
 
No, I thanked him for the effort he took to explain it, but unfortunately, I don’t think anyone here can explain it. I just gave up.

I honestly think all you can do is re-assert the church’s positions without explaining them. I don’t expect you to be able to explain them, unfortunately.

I wish no one no ill will, it is just that in my opinion, the theology is unexplainable- eventually we will get to “it’s a mystery”.

That’s fine- faith is faith, and I am not criticizing anyone for that. I don’t want to argue that’s all.

If you can explain it, fine, if not fine. I don’t think the pope himself could explain it.
I think perhaps the best thing you can do to understand the Catholic position on the mass is read the Liturgy of the Eucharist… the prayers and assertions made by the celebrant, to understand what is being offered to the Father, and why. The best I can do is summarize for you what our belief is:

(1) Adam’s sin separated all of us from the Father. Without a restoration of that unity with God, no one can go to the Father in Heaven.

(2) Because Adam’s sin offended God who is infinite, only a sacrifice of infinite worth can redeem for that sin.

(3) Christ was that infinite sacrifice - at Calvary. His submission to the will of the Father by: (a) taking on a human nature and; (b) giving up His own life in obedience to the will of the Father, was the only sacrifice that could restore man’s relationship with the Father.

(4) Before He went to His death, Jesus told his followers to take bread and wine, bless it and share it… that it was His Body and Blood of the new covenant.

(5) Jesus also said He was the Bread of Life, come down from Heaven, and that if we did not eat His body and drink His blood we would not have eternal life…

and so at the mass, we do what He told us to do. Don’t take my word for it. Read for yourself: Here

The mass is offered because we believe Jesus’ words that we must eat his flesh and drink his blood. We offer the mass because he asked us to do it as a remembrance of Him. And we do it because it re-presents that one infinite sacrifice to God in a real and tangible way in which we participate in its benefits, through receiving the real body and blood of Christ made present under the appearance of bread and wine.

Peace,
Robert
 
What our priests do (at the command of Jesus) is to make present for all (even for those who weren’t alive in 33 A.D. when Jesus was crucified) Jesus’ great Sacrifice.
How do priests do that?

I suppose it is “just a belief” that they do, which makes it so.

I am totally ok with that, but is there a defined mechanism how this happens, or what?

I could not tell you exactly how our priesthood works either- the question is just if the belief itself defines it, or there is some evidence of how this happens?

I am being silly for an example but one example would be “there is a cosmic time warp which takes us back into time”.

Is it symbolic? THAT I can understand. But “actual”? That is why I ask about mechanism.

If it’s a mystery ok- again- I am just looking to see how far the definitions go.
 
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