C
CEM5
Guest
Hello to you, CEM5,
(I took a break for a few days from responding to this, because I didn’t feel like getting into that kind of discussion as I knew I had little time and knew it could get complicated, but here goes
This is one of those cases that I had expressed to Lax16 several days ago (different thread), of an inconsistency in beliefs compared with the Bible and compared with “God is the same yesterday, today, and forever.”
Enoch “walked with God”, and Noah was “perfect in his generation” and had laws of God he was aware of. So to say that "before Moses, there were no ‘laws’ seems to be dealing only with the Mosaic law, which was given as a “lesser law” and was given after the children of Israel had rejected the idea of seeing the “face” of God for fear.
Abram communed with God, entered into covenants with God, and certainly knew both the voice of God and that he should keep the covenants he made and the laws given to him by God. Abraham is listed by Paul as a man of great faith, and Sara is also listed by Paul as a woman of great faith (Hebrews 11:11). There is no evidence within Genesis that God either reprimanded or considered it sinful that Abraham obeyed Sara’s expressed wish that he raise up seed by means of taking Hagar to wife. Neither is there evidence that God reprimanded Jacob (Israel) for accepting that he needed to keep Leah as his wife (despite having been deceived by Laban) and would be able to marry Rachel also, whom he had intended to marry. It is clear that these marriages were for the purpose of raising up seed as had been promised by God to these men.
It is also clear that both Abraham and Jacob communed with God in a relationship that was a two-way relationship where God spoke to them, and they listened and were obedient, even when asked to do hard things.
It is contradictory to think that Paul would cite the example of Abraham as a man of great faith and obedience, and yet to think that Paul had in his mind that Abraham was either grievously sinning or was doing something that needed Jesus to come and “set things right,” when the expressed belief I have seen and noted is that Jesus is Jehovah, the Great I Am (with which I agree), so certainly He could have “set things right” with Abraham and with Jacob without needing to wait until He came to earth personally in the flesh.
What Jesus did in regard to marriage is re-establish the idea of eternal marriage, through God having “joined together”, and establish that the law of Moses allowing a “writing of divorcement” was a lesser law situation, and reflected marriage for the duration of this life only, and did not reflect a kind of marriage that “God hath joined together”.
I agree about this, the “old laws” being specifically the Mosaic law, not the earlier law known by Adam, by Noah, and by Abraham and Isaac and Jacob.
I think if you were to research polygamy within the Jewish culture, you might take a different point of view as to it having been “no longer practiced” “by the time Jesus came”.
I agree that we are not living under the Old Covenant, and that divorce is not the planned way for eternal marriage covenants nor for the kinds of marriage covenants that are not viewed as eternally binding but are viewed as sacred and holy.
Thanks, and same to you, CEM.
Hello to you, CEM5,
(I took a break for a few days from responding to this, because I didn’t feel like getting into that kind of discussion as I knew I had little time and knew it could get complicated, but here goes
continued…