Parker:
When Jesus said…Render therefore to Caesar the things that are Caesar’s; and to God, the things that are God’s… this only applied to the Sadducees right ???
Hi, Techno 2000,
Thanks for the question that shows you are thinking about these kinds of issues.
Here is the relevant text (KJV–probably the DR is close to the same):
15 Then went the Pharisees, and took counsel how they might entangle him in his talk.
16 And they sent out unto him their disciples with the Herodians, saying, Master, we know that thou art true, and teachest the way of God in truth, neither carest thou for any man: for thou regardest not the person of men.
17 Tell us therefore, What thinkest thou? Is it lawful to give tribute unto Caesar, or not?
18 But Jesus perceived their wickedness, and said, Why tempt ye me, ye hypocrites?
19 Shew me the tribute money. And they brought unto him a penny.
20 And he saith unto them, Whose is this image and superscription?
21 They say unto him, Caesar’s. Then saith he unto them, Render therefore unto Caesar the things which are Caesar’s; and unto God the things that are God’s.
22 When they had heard these words, they marvelled, and left him, and went their way.
So to whom was Jesus talking? To the Pharisees and the Herodians.
Now, your question implies that you have looked at verse 17 and made a judgment about the intent of Jesus’ response to the specific question. It is a generic question about giving “tribute” (i.e. paying taxes) to Caesar, and about observing the “law” which implies both the laws of men and the law of God. Jesus taught about how to differentiate doing both things, and we can learn from what He taught, but specifically He was speaking to the Pharisees and the Herodians.