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Peter_John
Guest
You are reading way too much into this that is not justified by exegesis. It clearly reflects your belief in translation errors in the Bible, in an inability to fully comprehend it accurately without bringing in material from other sources.Hi, Lax16,
If you look at Matthew 21:38 and 43, then look at Titus 1:10,… (include all in between)
…So the Holy Ghost was inspiring the apostles to give their best efforts to teach the members and lead them, but at that point of his vision he was being told why they were not receiving inspiration about replacing apostles as one died or was killed. (They had earlier done so with Paul, Barnabas, and James, but later in time, the inspiration to do so did not come–they did not force that there be apostles anyway. They followed the inspiration that said not to ordain new apostles at that later point in time.
Have a good day.
The fact is that it is comprehensible in context with an accurate awareness of the historic circumstances under which it was written.
Consider this: Your Book of Mormon teaches that after the records which became the Bible went forth to the Gentiles from the Jews many plain and precious parts were removed.
That is exactly why protestants do not use the Deuterocanonical books. Several books that the Jews accepted as scripture at the time of Christ were written in Greek. These take the record of the Old Testament from about 400 years BC, where Protestant canon ends, to about 150 years BC.
These include doctrines such as the state of souls between death and the resurrection, the tradition of resurrection more fully assimilated, some very specific prophecies about Jesus, and the final complete shift in Judaic thought from considering God the king over all the Gods to acknowledgment of Him as the one and only Gods, with all others nothing more than human constructs. It is impossible to understand the fullness of the Gospels or the rest of the New Testament without the context of these books.
Around the end of the First Century the Jews in diaspora had a sort of a fundamentalist revival. They eliminated any books without original records in Hebrew from their accepted readings in the synagogues. When Martin Luther apostasized, he accepted the Jewish canon for the Old testament as it existed in his time, not in the time of Christ – therefore, after the Bible went forth to the Gentiles from the Jews, many plain and precious parts WERE removed, and this was the Bible Joseph Smith had to work with.
You cannot understand the whole Bible without them. You cannot fill in with conjecture where no conjecture is needed. The NT verses you cite make complete sense with less complicated explanations than the one you gave, arising from the valid historical, cultural, and scriptural context.
