LDS Question - How did the first church fail?

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“Church” means “full congregation of believers”. The believers get their knowledge from God about the Son of God being Jesus the Christ, by revelation. Revelation is the source of the knowledge that becomes the firm foundation–the rock–of their belief. Then when the rains and floods and winds come, they will stand firmly on that rock.

Peter had a rock-solid testimony of the Son of God, Jesus the Christ, and knew that Christ was the chief corner stone of the gospel. He was an example to be followed, for the other apostles and for believing members. But he did not have the function of being the same kind of “rock” as Jesus. See 1 Peter 2:5 for the kind of “stones” that members are to be.
Jesus liked the metaphor. Because it was both illustrative and understandable. It also continues to be a contant from 2000 years ago (most people get the concept of a foundation (although native Americans or bedouin might struggle). But Jesus was not known for mixing metaphors or trying to substitute one thing to mean another.

That would be like saying to Abraham, “your children shall be like stars” and then saying when God said like stars, he meant they will be actors. I don’t see revelation anywhere there. I do see Peter being the cornerstone (which is nice to see, everyone knows is not absolutely necessary to have), which is imporant and Christ is the foundation, which is required.
 
Hi, TheosisM,
I think it really is an issue, in that “doing penance” implies that Christ didn’t do enough with His suffering to enable a sincerely repentant person to “repent” of their sin and be forgiven because of that repentance. If they have to “do penance,” then unless that strictly means “make restitution” which would involve resolving any issues related to the sin such as apologizing to those offended or returning something that was stolen, it seems to place an incorrect connotation on the act of repentance itself, in my view.

Repentance should be a continuous, daily action of improvement. It need not be cumbersome or be laden with guilt feelings. We err and make mistakes. We see our mistake, regret it, ask forgiveness from God through the mercy of Christ and probably ask forgiveness of those offended since it usually involves others, and change our behavior for the better.

We do better today than yesterday. We love better, we are kinder, we are more sensitive to others’ needs. We look for ways to be helpful, and do those things. We become a new creature, without involving a priest at all. Our involvement is directly with God, His Son, and the Holy Spirit who sanctifies our heart through the ongoing process of repentance.
Penance in Catholicism is clearly “making restitution”. I’m not sure where you’re getting this idea that “doing penance” implies that Christ did not do enough with His suffering. When we are forgiven of our sins, they are really forgiven. Penance is a way that we can move away from that sin, and aim to never do it again. It is not the penance that forgives sins, since they are already forgiven. Penance can be simply praying and meditating on what you did and how to move beyond it and never do it again. It can also be apologizing to the person wronged, or giving back what you stole. This is what penance is in Catholicism. Jesus Christ’s sacrifice allows us to be completely forgiven of our sins, they are taken away, and after that, we also must make things right with ourselves, as well as the persons wronged. Forgiveness of sins in Catholicism is only possible through Jesus Christ’s atonement, and not anything we can do for ourselves.
 
Xavierlives,
I think I have been asked how LDS beliefs are reflected in early writings of people who were members of the church Christ established and the apostles continued. That particular quote showed a consistency with the LDS belief, so I thought it was important to bring forward to answer the objection about LDS beliefs being “different”.
I’m just saying, when I bring forward something Joseph Smith said in a sermon, I get the “he was just talking, not making doctrine” response.

The part that is hard for me to digest is our Pastor is responsible for everything he says and he isn’t making “church” doctrine, why shouldn’t Joseph Smith be responsible for the things he said?
 
Xavierlives,
I think I have been asked how LDS beliefs are reflected in early writings of people who were members of the church Christ established and the apostles continued. That particular quote showed a consistency with the LDS belief, so I thought it was important to bring forward to answer the objection about LDS beliefs being “different”.
ParkerD,

In which post can I see the ECF writing that is consistent with the LDS belief (and I assume inconsistent with the Catholic belief)? Which belief are you referring to?
 
Hi, Rinnie,
Jesus said the gates of hell would not prevail against “it”, but this is not the same thing as saying “the church would never fall” nor that “the Holy Spirit will be with people who choose by their own free will to ignore the promptings of the Holy Spirit.” God grants the guidance to people who sincerely seek the guidance, but if they seek their own way of doing things, then they lose that guidance from God.
Yes Parker it is. Its exactly the same think. When Jesus said the Gate of hell would not prevail that means the Devil would never take over the Holy Spirit and lead the Church astray. Jesus did indeed warn us the devil would try and be in sheeps clothing. But the Church would prevail. And its still the same Parker. Do you understand what I am saying. The same Holy Spirit is teaching the Church since the day of Pentecost.

IF what you are saying is true then how could the Church possibly fall without the devil bringing it down? IF it fell, the devil won and took over and God failed. Because if the Church fell the Holy Spirit was beaten by the devil. Its as simple as that. Because the Holy Spirit would not bring down the Holy Spirit for goodness sakes. That would make no sense.
 
Also Parker the Holy Spirit leading the CC has nothing to do with my free will. My free will is to obey the Holy Spirit or not to obey the Holy Spirit. If the Church was in the hands of our free then the Church would never have taken off. Because even in the time of Jesus people rejected the Church. Look at the Jews for goodness sakes they still do not believe Jesus is the Son of God. They just feel he is a prophet.
 
ParkerD,

In which post can I see the ECF writing that is consistent with the LDS belief (and I assume inconsistent with the Catholic belief)? Which belief are you referring to?
TheosisM,
Here is the quote from Clement’s writing:

1Clem 33:4
Above all, as the most excellent and exceeding great work of His
intelligence, with His sacred and faultless hands He formed man in
the impress of His own image.

That would be explicit language that says man is formed in the “impress” of the image of God, and that God formed man using “His sacred and faultless hands” which further demonstrates the LDS position that God is corporeal.
 
Also Parker the Holy Spirit leading the CC has nothing to do with my free will. My free will is to obey the Holy Spirit or not to obey the Holy Spirit. If the Church was in the hands of our free then the Church would never have taken off. Because even in the time of Jesus people rejected the Church. Look at the Jews for goodness sakes they still do not believe Jesus is the Son of God. They just feel he is a prophet.
Hi, Rinnie,
Yes, but if the Jews could “reject the church” or members could stray, and so can you, then so could leaders stray from following the Holy Spirit. That doesn’t mean they were “rejecting the church.” It just means they could follow their own mind on a question rather than the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
 
:rotfl:If you deny figurative language, you are truly impaired in understanding the Divine.
 
Yes Parker it is. Its exactly the same think. When Jesus said the Gate of hell would not prevail that means the Devil would never take over the Holy Spirit and lead the Church astray. Jesus did indeed warn us the devil would try and be in sheeps clothing. But the Church would prevail. And its still the same Parker. Do you understand what I am saying. The same Holy Spirit is teaching the Church since the day of Pentecost.

IF what you are saying is true then how could the Church possibly fall without the devil bringing it down? IF it fell, the devil won and took over and God failed. Because if the Church fell the Holy Spirit was beaten by the devil. Its as simple as that. Because the Holy Spirit would not bring down the Holy Spirit for goodness sakes. That would make no sense.
Rinnie,
The Holy Spirit doesn’t fail when people fail to follow the Holy Spirit. It is their doing, not the Holy Spirit’s doing.

Here are the two passages from the Bible that show that the devil was going to have broad, pervasive influence on earth and was allowed to do that in the plan of God:

Revelation 13:6 And he opened his mouth in blasphemy against God, to blaspheme his name, and his tabernacle, and them that dwell in heaven.
7 And it was given unto him to make war with the saints, and to overcome them: and power was given him over all kindreds, and tongues, and nations.

Daniel 7:24 And the ten horns out of this kingdom are ten kings that shall arise: and another shall rise after them; and he shall be diverse from the first, and he shall subdue three kings.
25 And he shall speak great words against the most High, and shall wear out the saints of the most High, and think to change times and laws: and they shall be given into his hand until a time and times and the dividing of time.
26 But the judgment shall sit, and they shall take away his dominion, to consume and to destroy it unto the end.
 
TheosisM,
Here is the quote from Clement’s writing:

1Clem 33:4
Above all, as the most excellent and exceeding great work of His
intelligence, with His sacred and faultless hands He formed man in
the impress of His own image.

That would be explicit language that says man is formed in the “impress” of the image of God, and that God formed man using “His sacred and faultless hands” which further demonstrates the LDS position that God is corporeal.
Thanks. From the context of Chapter 33 of 1 Clement, I simply don’t see how he’s being explicit about a physical likeness, due to what Clement is actually talking about in the chapter.

"What then must we do, brethren? Must we idly abstain from doing good, and forsake love? May the Master never allow this to befall us at least; but let us hasten with instancy and zeal to accomplish every good work. 2For the Creator and Master of the universe Himself rejoiceth in His works. 3For by His exceeding great might He established the heavens, and in His incomprehensible wisdom He set them in order. And the earth He separated from the water that surroundeth it, and He set it firm on the sure foundation of His own will; and the living creatures which walk upon it He commanded to exist by His ordinance. Having before created the sea and the living creatures therein, He enclosed it by His own power. 4Above all, as the most excellent and exceeding great work of His intelligence, with His sacred and faultless hands He formed man in the impress of His own image. 5For thus saith God Let us make man after our image and after our likeness. And God made man; male and female made He them. 6So having finished all these things, He praised them and blessed them and said, Increase and multiply. 7We have seen that all the righteous were adorned in good works. Yea, and the Lord Himself having adorned Himself with worlds rejoiced. 8Seeing then that we have this pattern, let us conform ourselves with all diligence to His will; let us with all our strength work the work of righteousness. (1Cl 33)"

He is not talking about a physical likeness at all, but that we should not be slothful, nor should we give up good works, because “God is an example to us of good works” in His creative actions, and, since we are created in His image and likeness, we too should practice good works.
 
Thanks. From the context of Chapter 33 of 1 Clement, I simply don’t see how he’s being explicit about a physical likeness, due to what Clement is actually talking about in the chapter.

"What then must we do, brethren? Must we idly abstain from doing good, and forsake love? May the Master never allow this to befall us at least; but let us hasten with instancy and zeal to accomplish every good work. 2For the Creator and Master of the universe Himself rejoiceth in His works. 3For by His exceeding great might He established the heavens, and in His incomprehensible wisdom He set them in order. And the earth He separated from the water that surroundeth it, and He set it firm on the sure foundation of His own will; and the living creatures which walk upon it He commanded to exist by His ordinance. Having before created the sea and the living creatures therein, He enclosed it by His own power. 4Above all, as the most excellent and exceeding great work of His intelligence, with His sacred and faultless hands He formed man in the impress of His own image. 5For thus saith God Let us make man after our image and after our likeness. And God made man; male and female made He them. 6So having finished all these things, He praised them and blessed them and said, Increase and multiply. 7We have seen that all the righteous were adorned in good works. Yea, and the Lord Himself having adorned Himself with worlds rejoiced. 8Seeing then that we have this pattern, let us conform ourselves with all diligence to His will; let us with all our strength work the work of righteousness. (1Cl 33)"

He is not talking about a physical likeness at all, but that we should not be slothful, nor should we give up good works, because “God is an example to us of good works” in His creative actions, and, since we are created in His image and likeness, we too should practice good works.
TheosisM,
I would have every expectation, from having read your posts, that you do “practice good works.” So since that is the message you take from those writings, and that leads to a good thing, then I think the result has been just fine.

But Ignatius could have used different language and expressed the thought that because God is an example of good works in the Creation, we should follow that example. He used specific language with a specific meaning, and did it when talking about the creation of man. The language is simple. To take it literally is not to find a hidden meaning.
 
TheosisM,
Here is the quote from Clement’s writing:

1Clem 33:4
Above all, as the most excellent and exceeding great work of His
intelligence, with His sacred and faultless hands He formed man in
the impress of His own image.

That would be explicit language that says man is formed in the “impress” of the image of God, and that God formed man using “His sacred and faultless hands” which further demonstrates the LDS position that God is corporeal.
Parker,
Can you clarify this for me then - Pope Clement’s primacy is acceptable because he was accepted by St. John and was teaching correct doctrine (according to LDS; i.e. God had a physical body etc). So then it is St. Evaristus (who came after Pope Clement) who was not properly given “the keys” and so is unacceptable and “lost the priesthood authority”? Is this correct?
 
Hi, Chris-WA,

I’ll answer, but I doubt if it will change your perspective even the slightest. Maybe someone else will get something from my response. Who knows?

Ignatius uses the term “her (this word means the members of the church) that hath the presidency in the country of the region of the Romans.”

To me that means Ignatius is saying the members of the church have a duty within the “country of the region of the Romans” to be the leaders collectively by the example they set to others, through their belief in Christ and through “the presidency of love, walking in the law of Christ and bearing the Father’s name.”
No matter how you slice it or which translation of Ignatius you use, Ignatius associates the presidency with the church at Rome and no other. Ignatius wrote letters to the churches at Ephesus, Magnesia, Tralls, Philidelphia, Smyrna, and Rome. He uses the same basic format for each. In each letter he praises the church for their faithfulness to the gospel and exhorts them to remain unified under their local bishop. But only with the church at Rome does he give the title "presidency." If your interpretation is correct, then he could have said the same thing to the other churches as well. But among his letters he singles out Rome as having the presidency.

Your treatment of “presidency of love” does not fit the context of the letter. First Ignatius states that the church of Rome has the presidency, then he describes this presidency as a “presidency of love,” meaning that Rome exercises its primacy more like a servant to the others than like a ruler who lords his power over his subjects. This is consistent with the way Christ acts as King. He is still in charge, but He acts so more as a servant than a dictator.
There is not a single word or phrase that can be deemed to mean that “Rome has the seat of Peter and his successors” within any writing of Ignatius that I came across. Do you have another example of that being the case, explicitly?
No, you can’t limit yourself to just one ECF, or read them in isolation from one another, if you want to get the best understanding of the historical church. Other church fathers made the Peter connection quite explicit. They no doubt were more familiar with Clement, Polycarp, Ignatius, and all the rest than any of us here.
You know of course that the word “Catholic” was a derivation from another word that Ignatius had used. The phrase does not prove anything as to the “Catholic church”. It is like saying “there is the whole church” which really is just re-stating what Christ and the apostles taught, that the members of the church become one body who should unitedly follow Christ as their living Head.
Well, there is much more implied by the term “catholic” than what you allude to, such as the fact that “catholic” means “universal,” indicating that the church is for all people of every race, nation, tongue, etc. This was a dramatic departure from the Jewish belief that salvation was only for them. I was simply stating this to show that the Catholic Church received its common name long before many realize, going back to the first century. Some people think it was invented in the middle ages.
Despite your opinion to the contrary, a believer in Christ becomes one who is filled with love for others, and one who is filled with love for others wants to live, not be a martyr to go where Christ is. They want to serve Christ by serving others, and do that best by staying alive, looking around, and being an unselfish follower of Christ by example. They want to live for Christ.
I don’t think you have the insight into Ignatius’ situation to judge what he should have done or not done, or said or not said. He was a faithful servant and incredible witness for Christ. There is no way you can reasonably argue otherwise, and I think most people would agree, even most Mormons once they become familiar with his story.
 
Hi, Rinnie,
Yes, but if the Jews could “reject the church” or members could stray, and so can you, then so could leaders stray from following the Holy Spirit. That doesn’t mean they were “rejecting the church.” It just means they could follow their own mind on a question rather than the guidance of the Holy Spirit.
But thats the Point. I CAN stray. And I totally agree with you if I walk away from the teaching of the RCC and stray I did indeed stray away from the teachings of Christ. I agree. I must obey the HS and the HS is who is lets say running the CHurch:D Always has always will.

But what does ME straying have to do with the HS straying and leaving the CC. Jesus promised us that would NEVER EVER happen. But see what you seem to think is that if a Priest sins, or Bishop sins that the Church has sinned. That is not true. If A priest sins he is human like me, and must also confess his sins to another priest. Its not different.

But how can a Priest or Bishop’s sins have do with the Power of the HS. If you think we think that they can not sin you are wrong. We know they are human and can. God told us that. But its the teachings of the RCC that cannot be wrong. That is what is led by GOd an will never be wrong. Do you not think that Peter, Paul, etc made mistakes and sinned. Just because they were led by God and promised to teach us the fullness of the truth does not mean that they did not fail on a personal level.
 
Parker,
Can you clarify this for me then - Pope Clement’s primacy is acceptable because he was accepted by St. John and was teaching correct doctrine (according to LDS; i.e. God had a physical body etc). So then it is St. Evaristus (who came after Pope Clement) who was not properly given “the keys” and so is unacceptable and “lost the priesthood authority”? Is this correct?
Jay53,
Woops if that is what you thought I meant.

Clement isn’t stated to be a “pope” in any writing contemporaneous to his day, that I have seen. His letter doesn’t need to be viewed as to whether it has “primacy”. It is an example of his belief, which he used to try and teach others in a common communication method. He showed devotion and diligence in urging the members to be strong in the faith of Christ.

But I was certainly not implying that Clement had the keys Peter held. I did enjoy reading his writing, for the most part, especially as he quoted scriptures from the Bible that I am familiar with.

An important thing to understand is that the keys we are talking about are to “bind on earth what shall be bound in heaven,” and that power (those keys) were only given to the apostles by Christ, not to other positions in the church.
 
TheosisM,
I would have every expectation, from having read your posts, that you do “practice good works.” So since that is the message you take from those writings, and that leads to a good thing, then I think the result has been just fine.

But Ignatius could have used different language and expressed the thought that because God is an example of good works in the Creation, we should follow that example. He used specific language with a specific meaning, and did it when talking about the creation of man. The language is simple. To take it literally is not to find a hidden meaning.
I too believe that he used specific language with a specific meaning, and that, as you said previously, the meaning is explicit. The issue here is what was Clement talking about in the Chapter, and what was the purpose of referencing the Genesis account of man’s creation. From the context, it is explicit that Clement was comparing the good works of God (namely creation) to the good works that man should also do (instead of “idly abstaining from doing good”), since we are created in the image and likeness of God (Clement clearly says “seeing that we have this pattern, let us conform ourselves with all diligence to His will”). There is no hidden meaning referencing a physical likeness in this Chapter, since it has nothing at all to do with physicality, but with us being “adorned in good works”. It isn’t a matter of what Clement “should have said”, but that the context shows what he is referencing as far as “impress”/“image and likeness” of God.

This is why I like going back to the ECFs’ writings to see the context of the proof texts, because in many cases, they are taken out of context. None of the ECFs believed that we were created in the physical image and likeness of God.

I’ll check back tomorrow, off to work.
 
Also, quickly, Catholics do not expect the early Popes to be called “Pope” or any other translation of the word. Nor do I expect Coptic Orthodox to read about their early Patriarchs as being called “Popes” although we both call our head Patriarchs “Pope”.
 
Jay53,
Woops if that is what you thought I meant.

Clement isn’t stated to be a “pope” in any writing contemporaneous to his day, that I have seen. His letter doesn’t need to be viewed as to whether it has “primacy”. It is an example of his belief, which he used to try and teach others in a common communication method. He showed devotion and diligence in urging the members to be strong in the faith of Christ.

But I was certainly not implying that Clement had the keys Peter held. I did enjoy reading his writing, for the most part, especially as he quoted scriptures from the Bible that I am familiar with.

An important thing to understand is that the keys we are talking about are to “bind on earth what shall be bound in heaven,” and that power (those keys) were only given to the apostles by Christ, not to other positions in the church.
OK, now you really have me confused. Pope Clement is unacceptable because he supposedly wasn’t given the keys, but was still allegedly teaching correct doctrine (according to Mormons)? When you say that the keys were only given to the apostles by Christ, not to anyone else, how did Jesus intend for His church to continue, if not by passing on the keys? :confused: St. Peter should have given “the keys” to St. John who should have given them to ________ ???

And, when did this drifting away in doctrinal purity come in to play then?
 
Here is some more information that I found to be interesting and germane to the discussion. Someone can correct me if I’m wrong, but it seems that alot of the information about the successors of St. Peter and the early church comes from the writings of St. Irenaeus.

From an article on St. Irenaeus:
The writings of Irenaeus give him an honored place among the Fathers of the Church for they laid the foundations of Christian theology and, by refuting the errors of the Gnostics,[1] kept the youthful Catholic faith from the danger of corruption by the subtle, pessimistic doctrines of these philosophers.
All through his life, he told a friend, he could recall every detail of Polycarp’s appearance, his voice, and the very words he used when telling what he had heard from John the Evangelist and others who had seen Jesus.
His treatise , in five books, sets forth fully the doctrines of the main dissident sects of the day and then contrasts them with the words of Scripture and the teachings of the Apostles, as preserved not only in sacred writings but by oral tradition in the churches which the Apostles founded. Above all, he cites the authoritative tradition of the Church of Rome, handed down from Peter and Paul through an unbroken succession of bishops. In his theological works Irenaeus especially shows the influence of St. Paul and St. John. An humble, patient man, he writes of controversial matters with a moderation and courtesy unusual in this age of perfervid conviction. ewtn.com/library/MARY/IRENAEUS.htm
Against the Heresies
  1. Now it is within the power of anyone who cares to find out the truth, to know the tradition of the Apostles, professed throughout the world in every church. We can name those too who were appointed bishops by the Apostles in the churches and their successors down to our own time… But inasmuch as it would be very tedious in a book like this to rehearse the lines of succession in every church, we will put to confusion all those who, either from waywardness or conceit or blindness or obstinacy combine together against the truth, by pointing to the tradition, derived from the Apostles, of that great and illustrious Church founded and organized at Rome by the two glorious Apostles, Peter and Paul, and to the faith declared to mankind and handed down to our own time through its bishops in their succession. For with this Church, because of its more powerful leadership, every church, that is to say, the faithful from everywhere, must needs agree, and in it the tradition that springs from the Apostles has been continuously preserved by men from everywhere…
(emphasis mine)
 
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