P
PrinceHal
Guest
Just when I thought that LDS teachings on the Bible could not upset me more, I was duly upset.
Attended a meeting in San Francisco on the Book of Ephesians. Chapter 1 v10 was quoted by the teacher:
“That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him…”
Followed by the explanation that “most people outside of the [LDS] church” believe that this scripture is talking about Christ. But it is not. It is actually referring to Joseph Smith.
Okay, he then clarified the statement by referring to the Bible Dictionary on “Dispensations” in the LDS Bible which says in part:
lds.org/scriptures/bd/dispensations?lang=eng&letter=d
“Paul writes of “the dispensation of the fulness of times” in which the Lord will “gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth” (Eph. 1:10). The fulness of times is the final dispensation and began with the revelation of the gospel to Joseph Smith. It is a dispensation of restoration and of fulfillment of the Lord’s plans and purposes since the world began.”
So, Paul was referring to the times of Joseph Smith. I wonder if Paul knew this, or whether he was thinking that he was writing about Christ heralding in the Final Dispensation.
Anyway, does anyone know how I can answer this? I think that it is incorrect and the LDS teacher was stuffing the scriptures into a mould to make a point - though strictly speaking he did not teach false doctrine from an LDS stance.
Hal.
Attended a meeting in San Francisco on the Book of Ephesians. Chapter 1 v10 was quoted by the teacher:
“That in the dispensation of the fulness of times he might gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth; even in him…”
Followed by the explanation that “most people outside of the [LDS] church” believe that this scripture is talking about Christ. But it is not. It is actually referring to Joseph Smith.
Okay, he then clarified the statement by referring to the Bible Dictionary on “Dispensations” in the LDS Bible which says in part:
lds.org/scriptures/bd/dispensations?lang=eng&letter=d
“Paul writes of “the dispensation of the fulness of times” in which the Lord will “gather together in one all things in Christ, both which are in heaven, and which are on earth” (Eph. 1:10). The fulness of times is the final dispensation and began with the revelation of the gospel to Joseph Smith. It is a dispensation of restoration and of fulfillment of the Lord’s plans and purposes since the world began.”
So, Paul was referring to the times of Joseph Smith. I wonder if Paul knew this, or whether he was thinking that he was writing about Christ heralding in the Final Dispensation.
Anyway, does anyone know how I can answer this? I think that it is incorrect and the LDS teacher was stuffing the scriptures into a mould to make a point - though strictly speaking he did not teach false doctrine from an LDS stance.
Hal.