LDS: Why try to convert Catholics, what do we lack for salvation?

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It seems that much of what you are saying comes from the post of Theosis. I am waiting to hear from several experts before responding to your posts (and Theosis).

It is taking time to get calls/e-mails returned, but I will post their answers as they come available.

I am not an expert in Catholic theology and to answer your questions (that have arisen from the assumption that Theosis is correct), Dianaiad, I must defer to an expert.

Actually I found his post confusing, not clarifying.
With all due respect…and I do respect Theosis VERY much, none of what I wrote came from his post. I was simply explaining the LDS point of view on this matter.

…and of course you should absolutely defer to the experts, especially in terms of Catholic thought, and that means…Catholics, not me. However, I think I explained the LDS view of things accurately enough. 😉
 
I guess I misunderstood?😉
I see…

No, I was acknowledging Theosis’ expertise on Catholicism. The ideas I expressed in my post are the LDS view…and Theosis, not, as far as I know, being LDS cannot be used as an expert on that. In previous posts he has identified himself as Catholic.
 
I am aware that you do…which is the major difference in claims between Catholicism and Mormonism. 😉 You believe that it 'never ended…" and yet y’all have this concept of public revelation ceasing after the death of the last apostle. Can you see where we would have a problem reconciling these two positions…that the last of the apostles died, and thus ended the era of public revelation, and yet the 'apostolic office [n]ever ended?" hat he learned from it…or that verse doesn’t mean what you think it does.
Okay, Diana, what I am about to say is certainly NOT going to be a perfect analogy to what you’ve said above (especially since US history wasn’t my favorite subject), but I think that it may have enough basic similarity to be useful…

Eventually, the “era” of the framing of the US Constitution ended. (Akin to public revelation). Yet the leadership of the US (akin to “apostolic office”) was somehow able to continue, based on the (somewhat) “closed” US Constitution. (I guess that in this analogy the Bill of Rights would be akin to developing dogma as more of the deposit of faith became understood).

Again, the above is not a perfect analogy and I don’t wish to go down a rabbit hole here trying to revise it to make it perfect. My main point here in using this (imperfect) analogy is to show a way that I do think LDS could at least understand (though not agree with) the Catholic teaching that public revelation ended, but that early Christianity continued (without going into apostasy as the LDS claim.)

To me, the concept is no harder to comprehend than the LDS claim that the early church went into apostasy and was restored. I happen to not have a testimony of that claim, thus I cannot say that I would affirm it, but I do nonetheless understand what it means. 🤷 (And I get frustrated when obviously intelligent Christians say they don’t “understand” the LDS claim, when I often think that they DO understand it, at least academically, rather, it is that they don’t agree with it.)
 
I am aware that you do…which is the major difference in claims between Catholicism and Mormonism. 😉 You believe that it 'never ended…" and yet y’all have this concept of public revelation ceasing after the death of the last apostle. Can you see where we would have a problem reconciling these two positions…that the last of the apostles died, and thus ended the era of public revelation, and yet the 'apostolic office [n]ever ended?"
You make the assumption that Apostle = Public Revelation, that you can’t have one without the other. Why do you believe that? Where does the Bible say that? Can you understand that we, as Catholics, believe that no further public revelation will be given because no further public revelation is necessary? Jesus is God’s final revelation because God Himself has been revealed through him. What more can we possibly need? The Apostles were given the command to “teach all nations” and to “baptize”. To teach all nations about what? JESUS. And how were they to teach all nations if their authority would stop at the moment of their deaths? Successors were absolutely necessary in accomplishing that goal, that command. Also necessary was the authority of the Apostles; not to bring NEW revelation, but to guard and to teach the truth they received from Jesus Himself.
Nice idea, if indeed there had been no further revelation after His coming–and His death, resurrection and assencion. The problem is, of course, there was. the NT is full of exactly the sort of revelation you are claiming ceased upon the coming of Jesus to the earth.
Maybe I haven’t adequately communicated my thoughts. The Gospels center completely on the person of Jesus Christ. The Epistles as well. They all center on the revelation of the person of Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the Savior of the world. What other “revelation” do you find in the NT apart from Jesus. That is my whole point. All revelation is summed up in Christ. We can comment on His life, we can discuss the meaning of His words, the implications of His suffering, death and resurrection. But that is not new revelation.
I have commented on the irony of the use of THIS verse to justify the end of public revelation before, y’know.
  1. Who wrote this verse?
    Answer…Paul.
  2. Was Paul one of the original apostles?
    Answer…no.
  3. Was Paul an apostle?
    Answer…well, yeah…
  4. Did Paul receive direct revelation from Christ, with information that he was directed to tell the church?
    Answer…well, yeah…
  5. Would we know anything at all about what happened to Jesus after His death and Resurrection if Jesus’ apostles did NOT recieve direct revelation from Him?
    Answer…well, no…
Given the above, either Paul was lying through his teeth when he said there wouldn’t be more revelation, or he was lying through his teeth when he had the nerve to claim that he RECIEVED revelation and was empowered to teach the early church what he learned from it…or that verse doesn’t mean what you think it does.

In actuality, it means that all further revelation would come by MEANS of the Son…for He ‘bought us with a price.’ In other words, Jesus, the Messiah and Savior of the world, is the giver of revelation. Paul did NOT mean that there wouldn’t be any revelation…that would be an assinine thing to say, given the experiences Paul had. He meant that all future revelation would come from Jesus.
Please tell me what NEW revelation Paul gave us? He preached salvation through Jesus Christ and did a great job of explaining it to the gentiles. Paul understood very well that Jesus was God’s final revelation.

“In many and various ways God spoke of old to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by a son.” (Heb 1:1-2)

Paul did not say that further revelation would come by MEANS of the Son. He said God has SPOKEN (not will speak) to us by a Son. Jesus is His Word, His only Word. There is nothing left to be said. But the first part of his statement is very important in understanding his meaning. * “In many and various ways God spoke to our fathers by the prophets…”* He is contrasting the fact that we did indeed need the revelation of the various prophets, but now we have the Son. Seems very clear to me.
 
public revelation is a very dangerous thing. Jesus knew this. He knew that, thru the years, there would be a lot of people come along who claimed revelation. People like Mohammed, Mary White, Joseph Smith, James Jones, Warren Jeffs…all claiming revelation, all claiming to speak with God. He knew revelations would along like Joseph saying there men on the moon and that the earth would end in the 1800s. He knew there would be commands like drinking grape koolaide and flying planes into buildings. He knew there would be proclamations like Adam is our God. And He had to control all the damage this would cause and all the souls this would destroy.

Jesus was pretty darned smart…
 
Okay, Diana, what I am about to say is certainly NOT going to be a perfect analogy to what you’ve said above (especially since US history wasn’t my favorite subject), but I think that it may have enough basic similarity to be useful…

Eventually, the “era” of the framing of the US Constitution ended. (Akin to public revelation). Yet the leadership of the US (akin to “apostolic office”) was somehow able to continue, based on the (somewhat) “closed” US Constitution. (I guess that in this analogy the Bill of Rights would be akin to developing dogma as more of the deposit of faith became understood).

Again, the above is not a perfect analogy and I don’t wish to go down a rabbit hole here trying to revise it to make it perfect. My main point here in using this (imperfect) analogy is to show a way that I do think LDS could at least understand (though not agree with) the Catholic teaching that public revelation ended, but that early Christianity continued (without going into apostasy as the LDS claim.)

To me, the concept is no harder to comprehend than the LDS claim that the early church went into apostasy and was restored. I happen to not have a testimony of that claim, thus I cannot say that I would affirm it, but I do nonetheless understand what it means. 🤷 (And I get frustrated when obviously intelligent Christians say they don’t “understand” the LDS claim, when I often think that they DO understand it, at least academically, rather, it is that they don’t agree with it.)
I love your analogy…😉

Mostly because I can turn it around. (bigger grin…)

The Constitution was ratified…but only after there were ten rather important amendments. Since that time there have been 17 more amendments, the last one in 1992 (it took 202 years to get it ratified!). The Constitution is definitely not a ‘closed canon,’ much to the dismay of many on both ends of the political spectrum. 😉

Indeed, if it HAD been a closed canon, we would still have slavery, women would not be able to vote, there would be no income tax, (wait…I have to think about the positive nature of that one for a minute…) Senators would be appointed by the states, not elected, the president could run for office as many times consequtively as s/he wanted to, and everybody would have to wait until they were 21 to vote. Among, of course, other things. 😉

Oh, yeah, and congress could vote itself immediate raises.

If anything emphasizes the necessity for ongoing communication with the power that created something, the US Constitution does…a closed canon is, well…in all the history of the world, God has never, EVER, closed the canon. He has taken very long "vacations,’ of sorts, but He has never actually stopped talking.

I guess that’s the thing; this unprecedented idea that He did, absent any indication from Him at all that He WOULD.

Diana
 
You make the assumption that Apostle = Public Revelation, that you can’t have one without the other. Why do you believe that?
Probably for the same reason CAtholics do, Steve. Since there was no more public revelation after the death of the apostles…it does sort of follow. And yes, as far as I am aware Catholics and other Christians agree that no more public revelation happened after that. That is, after all, what is MEANT by 'closed canon."
Where does the Bible say that? Can you understand that we, as Catholics, believe that no further public revelation will be given because no further public revelation is necessary?
I would accept that if there WERE no more public revelation after Jesus’ death, resurrection and ascension into heaven, but, well…there was. In fact, everything in the NT is exactly the sort of public revelation that you claim ceased. Without it, we wouldn’t know anything about Jesus or His role in our salvation.
Jesus is God’s final revelation because God Himself has been revealed through him. What more can we possibly need? The Apostles were given the command to “teach all nations” and to “baptize”. To teach all nations about what? JESUS. And how were they to teach all nations if their authority would stop at the moment of their deaths? Successors were absolutely necessary in accomplishing that goal, that command. Also necessary was the authority of the Apostles; not to bring NEW revelation, but to guard and to teach the truth they received from Jesus Himself.
And for which purpose they continued to receive revelation FROM Jesus, and they wrote it down as scripture. What in the world do you think those appearances to the Apostles by the Resurrected Christ WERE, if they were not revelation? What about Paul’s experience on the road to Damascus? Revelation in the most classic sense! Every single time Christ spoke to His apostles; every time they wrote something down that we consider to be scripture; every vision…the Book of Revelation itself…it is REVELATION. …and it happened AFTER Christ died and was resurrected again. It came FROM Him.

And there is nothing anywhere to indicate that He would stop giving it.

Yes. I understand that Catholics believe a: that there was no more public revelation after the death of the apostles, and that b: there was no more need for such. However, Catholics have a small problem with that position, because of Holy Tradition.
Maybe I haven’t adequately communicated my thoughts. The Gospels center completely on the person of Jesus Christ. The Epistles as well. They all center on the revelation of the person of Jesus Christ, the Son of God, the Savior of the world. What other “revelation” do you find in the NT apart from Jesus. That is my whole point. All revelation is summed up in Christ. We can comment on His life, we can discuss the meaning of His words, the implications of His suffering, death and resurrection. But that is not new revelation.
Then you are willing to discard everything written by the apostles after His death? Because everything we know of Him is the direct result of exactly the sort of revelation that you are here claiming didn’t happen!

Yes, Jesus IS the center…and part of being the center means that He is the SOURCE of further revelation, not simply the subject of it.
Please tell me what NEW revelation Paul gave us? He preached salvation through Jesus Christ and did a great job of explaining it to the gentiles. Paul understood very well that Jesus was God’s final revelation.

“In many and various ways God spoke of old to our fathers by the prophets, but in these last days he has spoken to us by a son.” (Heb 1:1-2)

Paul did not say that further revelation would come by MEANS of the Son. He said God has SPOKEN (not will speak) to us by a Son. Jesus is His Word, His only Word. There is nothing left to be said. But the first part of his statement is very important in understanding his meaning. * “In many and various ways God spoke to our fathers by the prophets…”* He is contrasting the fact that we did indeed need the revelation of the various prophets, but now we have the Son. Seems very clear to me.
Again, for Paul to say this, and mean it as you claim, make Paul a liar anyway you want to look at it, for if Paul did not receive public revelation, then he had absolutely no business claiming to be an apostle, nor we to put his words as scripture equal with anything that Mark, Luke, John or Mathew wrote…but you do put his words right up there, as being authoritative.

As well, Paul said several things that are not found in the gospels…including, by the way, the very verse you keep quoting here. That is indeed ‘new,’ in that none of the gospels mention the concept.
 
I see…

No, I was acknowledging Theosis’ expertise on Catholicism. The ideas I expressed in my post are the LDS view…and Theosis, not, as far as I know, being LDS cannot be used as an expert on that. In previous posts he has identified himself as Catholic.
I am sure that Theosis is a very knowledgeable Catholic and his posts are deserving of respect. To call a person an expert on Catholicism is a very generous label though, to be reserved for those who are experts. Theosis, perhaps you are one, but I would have no way of knowing if someone is an expert if they don’t say it somewhere in their post.

Either way, your (name removed by moderator)ut is valuable and I am really looking forward to furthering our discussion on the Catholic Church’s teachings on public vs private revelations.
 
Probably for the same reason CAtholics do, Steve. Since there was no more public revelation after the death of the apostles…it does sort of follow. And yes, as far as I am aware Catholics and other Christians agree that no more public revelation happened after that. That is, after all, what is MEANT by 'closed canon."
You have lost me here.
I would accept that if there WERE no more public revelation after Jesus’ death, resurrection and ascension into heaven, but, well…there was. In fact, everything in the NT is exactly the sort of public revelation that you claim ceased. Without it, we wouldn’t know anything about Jesus or His role in our salvation.
Those Apostles who wrote scripture in the NT did so under the guidance of the Holy Spirit so that they would speak without error concerning the REVELATION OF JESUS CHRIST, who they walked and lived with. The synoptic Gospels, for the most part, tell the same story, the same revelation. The Gospel of John contains some theology (“the Word was with God and the Word was God”, for example) not present in the synoptic Gospels, but necessary to complete the one revelation of Jesus Christ. Can you see that there is no revelation given apart from that of Jesus Christ? Yes, Christ revealed Himself to Paul on the road to Damascus but what did He reveal to Paul? He revealed Himself, not a new revelation. Christ chose Paul as a special instrument to bring the ONE REVELATION of Himself to the gentiles. Paul received the same revelation given to the Apostles before him. The revelation of Jesus Christ can and will be pondered by people throughout the centuries and new insights and understanding into this one revelation will certainly take place. Maybe you consider obtaining a greater understanding as a revelation, but we do not. We believe that our Pope and bishops are guided by the Holy Spirit and protected from bringing error into our understanding of the one revelation, the deposit of faith given to Peter and the other Apostles, including Paul. Their job is not to bring new public revealtion, but to protect and guard what they received from the Apostles.
And for which purpose they continued to receive revelation FROM Jesus, and they wrote it down as scripture. What in the world do you think those appearances to the Apostles by the Resurrected Christ WERE, if they were not revelation? What about Paul’s experience on the road to Damascus? Revelation in the most classic sense! Every single time Christ spoke to His apostles; every time they wrote something down that we consider to be scripture; every vision…the Book of Revelation itself…it is REVELATION. …and it happened AFTER Christ died and was resurrected again. It came FROM Him.
But Diana, WHAT WAS BEING REVEALED? Jesus Christ, not something new.
And there is nothing anywhere to indicate that He would stop giving it.

Yes. I understand that Catholics believe a: that there was no more public revelation after the death of the apostles, and that b: there was no more need for such. However, Catholics have a small problem with that position, because of Holy Tradition.
There is nothing to indicate that any new revealtion was necessary either. As far as Holy Tradition is concerned, please tell me what “new revelation” comes from Holy Tradition that is not present in scripture? The inclusion of writings contained in thecanon of scripture chosen by the bishops of the Catholic Church were in large part based upon how they compared to Holy Tradition as a measure of their inspired nature.
Then you are willing to discard everything written by the apostles after His death? Because everything we know of Him is the direct result of exactly the sort of revelation that you are here claiming didn’t happen!

Yes, Jesus IS the center…and part of being the center means that He is the SOURCE of further revelation, not simply the subject of it.
Let me put it this way. If Jesus appeared to me today that would not constitute new revelation. When He appeared to his disciples after his resurrection and to Paul, it was the revelation of Himself, not something different. He did not reveal something different to each of them. We believe that Christ has appeared to various saints throughout history, but he has always pointed to the same revelation of Himself and has never given us new doctrine. It is the same revelation.
Again, for Paul to say this, and mean it as you claim, make Paul a liar anyway you want to look at it, for if Paul did not receive public revelation, then he had absolutely no business claiming to be an apostle, nor we to put his words as scripture equal with anything that Mark, Luke, John or Mathew wrote…but you do put his words right up there, as being authoritative.

As well, Paul said several things that are not found in the gospels…including, by the way, the very verse you keep quoting here. That is indeed ‘new,’ in that none of the gospels mention the concept.
It is not new revelation, but a an explanation of the one revelation of Jesus. One may receive a new insight into the one revelation, but that does not constitute a new public revelation. That is the problem we have with Mormon theology. You do bring in something different (celestial marriage, polygamy, polytheism etc…) which was not “revealed” to the Apostles. We were warned not to accept a different gospel even if given to us by and angel. Our Church continues to guard and protect the truth given to us by the Apostles and nothing more, not because public revelation was cut off from the Church, but because there is no further revelation apart from the saving power of Jesus Christ.
 
Diana:

It occurs to me that many of our differences may be due to different definitions for the same words. What do you mean by the word “Revelation”? In Catholic terms, it would mean a certain truth given to us by God. This same truth may be given to different people at different times, but it is the same truth, therefore not new revelation. We would expect the Church to grow in its understanding of this one truth (Jesus Christ), but a new insight or understanding would not be considered new revelation. We are still speaking of the one revelation given to us in the person of Jesus. In other words, lets take an onion and begin removing the layers. We may gain continuing understanding as we peal back the layers, but we are still talking about an onion, not an apple or an orange.
Pope John Paul, II wrote a book called “Theology of the Body” which has given the Church incredible insight into who we were created to be, insight that the Church previously did not have and which may take many years to fully understand. We do not consider that as “new revelation”. Does that make sense? Maybe this is where we have a breadown in communication. What are your thoughts on this?

Steve
 
Sigh, I don’t want to beat the analogy to death…as I said originally it is NOT a perfect one. However, I see the amendments as being more akin to changes in church policy rather than “new revelation”. The CC is equipped to deal with temporal changes based on the needs of people in a particular time/place.

Again, not wanting to spend time picking the analogy apart–it is beside the point. What I was really asking above was, can you really and truly not understand the Catholic PoV on this?

Please note once again, I don’t expect you to AGREE with the Catholic position, but I find it hard to believe that a person of obvious intelligence wouldn’t be able to grasp this notion. Understanding something conceptually and agreeing aren’t the same thing. I have no worries about saying that I understand the LDS claims…again, just because I understand them doesn’t mean I agree with them, and I don’t think that there is anything scandalous about saying that I understand them (which some on CAF seem to think, since they claim they “cannot understand” some LDS stuff.) 🤷
I love your analogy…😉

Mostly because I can turn it around. (bigger grin…)

The Constitution was ratified…but only after there were ten rather important amendments. Since that time there have been 17 more amendments, the last one in 1992 (it took 202 years to get it ratified!). The Constitution is definitely not a ‘closed canon,’ much to the dismay of many on both ends of the political spectrum. 😉

Indeed, if it HAD been a closed canon, we would still have slavery, women would not be able to vote, there would be no income tax, (wait…I have to think about the positive nature of that one for a minute…) Senators would be appointed by the states, not elected, the president could run for office as many times consequtively as s/he wanted to, and everybody would have to wait until they were 21 to vote. Among, of course, other things. 😉

Oh, yeah, and congress could vote itself immediate raises.

If anything emphasizes the necessity for ongoing communication with the power that created something, the US Constitution does…a closed canon is, well…in all the history of the world, God has never, EVER, closed the canon. He has taken very long "vacations,’ of sorts, but He has never actually stopped talking.

I guess that’s the thing; this unprecedented idea that He did, absent any indication from Him at all that He WOULD.

Diana
 
Diana:

It occurs to me that many of our differences may be due to different definitions for the same words. What do you mean by the word “Revelation”?
“Revelation:” direct communication from God to man,

“Public Revelation” direct communication from God to man that is for the guidance and edification of the human race. It is, by definition, scripture.

Any time God speaks to a man and tells him to tell others what was said (“Thus saith the Lord…”) that man becomes, by definition, a prophet. That’s what MAKES him a prophet.

Whenever that prophet writes that revelation down, what is written is scripture.

It need not be 'new…" You DO realize that the vast majority of what Jesus taught was actually not new, in terms of doctrine? He Himself was not new–He was the fulfilment of a prophecy given to OT prophets. Many of the scriptures written in the NT repeat other things said by other men–in the NT. They are still scripture, and that is still revelation.
In Catholic terms, it would mean a certain truth given to us by God. This same truth may be given to different people at different times, but it is the same truth, therefore not new revelation. We would expect the Church to grow in its understanding of this one truth (Jesus Christ), but a new insight or understanding would not be considered new revelation. We are still speaking of the one revelation given to us in the person of Jesus. In other words, lets take an onion and begin removing the layers. We may gain continuing understanding as we peal back the layers, but we are still talking about an onion, not an apple or an orange.
Pope John Paul, II wrote a book called “Theology of the Body” which has given the Church incredible insight into who we were created to be, insight that the Church previously did not have and which may take many years to fully understand. We do not consider that as “new revelation”. Does that make sense? Maybe this is where we have a breadown in communication. What are your thoughts on this?

Steve
The problem is that you are still considering the Person of Jesus to BE the revelation…but in the NT, He is the One who was the SOURCE of it. It is HE who guided Peter and Paul in their writings…and that was all revelation.
 
Sigh, I don’t want to beat the analogy to death…as I said originally it is NOT a perfect one. However, I see the amendments as being more akin to changes in church policy rather than “new revelation”. The CC is equipped to deal with temporal changes based on the needs of people in a particular time/place.

Again, not wanting to spend time picking the analogy apart–it is beside the point. What I was really asking above was, can you really and truly not understand the Catholic PoV on this?
Honestly? I am beginning to see at least one view I didn’t see before. However, THAT view is looking very much like dodging the issue. It’s the idea that since Jesus is the culmination of all things, that nothing HE might say to prophets can be called revelation, because it’s not ‘new.’ Nothing can be new after Christ.

At least, that’s the impression I’m getting.

The problem, of course, is that this seems like a redefinition of the word…a difference in the ‘sound’ of the word, not the concept. Suppose we call that guidance that Christ gave to His apostles after His death and resurrection “flurple.” We still have the same problem; there is no hint in the NT that flurpleing would cease, but Catholics (and other Christians) contend that it did indeed cease upon the death of the last apostle. In other words, Jesus stopped guiding His church through 'flurpling." We were all left on our own, depending upon personal reve…er, sorry, flurpling. There is absolutly nothing WRONG with personal flurples, but such a thing is personal and not meant for anybody but the person who gets one. A flurple given to a man that he is supposed to impart to other people IS public reve…flurple, and the results are scripture. By definition.

Please pardon the 'flurple." My imagination is sadly lacking.

The other option, that ‘revelation’ means the same thing to both peoples but that it really was supposed to cease upon the death of the last apostle, well…I do understand it. It makes absolutely no SENSE to me, for the reasons I have given here and elsewhere, but I understand the concept! 😉
Please note once again, I don’t expect you to AGREE with the Catholic position, but I find it hard to believe that a person of obvious intelligence wouldn’t be able to grasp this notion. Understanding something conceptually and agreeing aren’t the same thing. I have no worries about saying that I understand the LDS claims…again, just because I understand them doesn’t mean I agree with them, and I don’t think that there is anything scandalous about saying that I understand them (which some on CAF seem to think, since they claim they “cannot understand” some LDS stuff.) 🤷
 
Yeah, honestly, Diana. I’m simply asking you if you can understand what the Catholics believe. For me it isn’t about defining the word revelation or replacing it with “flurple” or saying that Catholics are dodging. That is all beside the point. I’m simply asking if you understand, conceptually, what the Catholics are a-sayin’.

In the past I’ve seen you spend a lot of keyboard time here on CAF when others who are non-LDS say they don’t understand some LDS doctrine. I’m doing something similar when inquiring as to whether you understand the Catholic PoV (though I admit I lack your dedication thus I won’t spend nearly as much time on it as you might.)
Honestly? I am beginning to see at least one view I didn’t see before. However, THAT view is looking very much like dodging the issue. It’s the idea that since Jesus is the culmination of all things, that nothing HE might say to prophets can be called revelation, because it’s not ‘new.’ Nothing can be new after Christ.

At least, that’s the impression I’m getting.

The problem, of course, is that this seems like a redefinition of the word…a difference in the ‘sound’ of the word, not the concept. Suppose we call that guidance that Christ gave to His apostles after His death and resurrection “flurple.” We still have the same problem; there is no hint in the NT that flurpleing would cease, but Catholics (and other Christians) contend that it did indeed cease upon the death of the last apostle. In other words, Jesus stopped guiding His church through 'flurpling." We were all left on our own, depending upon personal reve…er, sorry, flurpling. There is absolutly nothing WRONG with personal flurples, but such a thing is personal and not meant for anybody but the person who gets one. A flurple given to a man that he is supposed to impart to other people IS public reve…flurple, and the results are scripture. By definition.

Please pardon the 'flurple." My imagination is sadly lacking.

The other option, that ‘revelation’ means the same thing to both peoples but that it really was supposed to cease upon the death of the last apostle, well…I do understand it. It makes absolutely no SENSE to me, for the reasons I have given here and elsewhere, but I understand the concept! 😉
 
Yeah, honestly, Diana. I’m simply asking you if you can understand what the Catholics believe. For me it isn’t about defining the word revelation or replacing it with “flurple” or saying that Catholics are dodging. That is all beside the point. I’m simply asking if you understand, conceptually, what the Catholics are a-sayin’.
I thought I did, yes, until Steve started writing. The thing is, I think I do understand; Catholics believe that there was no more public revelation after the last apostle died, but that apostolic succession continued without that public revelation, because there was no need for further revelation after the appearance of Jesus Christ.

My use of ‘flurple’ was in no way meant to mock the idea; it was simply and only to substitute a different sound for the concept, so that it is the concept under discussion, not the word.
In the past I’ve seen you spend a lot of keyboard time here on CAF when others who are non-LDS say they don’t understand some LDS doctrine. I’m doing something similar when inquiring as to whether you understand the Catholic PoV (though I admit I lack your dedication thus I won’t spend nearly as much time on it as you might.)
Hmmn…well, I’m the Mormon, and I’m here to defend Mormonism. 😉 I’m going to be more interested in explaining the LDS viewpoint than anything else. This is why, when Catholics or other Christians start quoting that verse in Hebrews from Paul, I guess I really don’t get the point.

It just seems so illogical to use a statement by a man who has to be the epitome of post Messiah "prophet,’ as a prooftext that after Christ, there wouldn’t be any prophets.

So, I suppose, I don’t get it.
 
This is a thread that could only cause anyone who cares about LDS people to feel sad. There are communication gaps that some have noticed here, but even some LDS people, let alone Christians, may not know how profound they are. Mormons do not even mean the same thing as Christians when we talk about “Salvation”. Although the original “Articles of Fath” of the LDS Church said that people are “saved by obedience to the laws and ordinances of the ‘gospel’”, by the time the LDS people were emmigrating to Utah, that idea had already evolved to mean that all people are “saved” by the Sacrifice and Resurrection of Jesus Christ because his Atonement reversed the effects of the Fall of Adam so that all people will be resurrected. But the real difference is in whether, or to what extent individuals will be “glorified” or exalted. Only those who obey all the laws and ordinances of the church, including “Eternal Marriage” will be exalted to the “Celestial Kingdom” and enjoy the kind of “Eternal Life” that our Heavenly Father enjoys, including spiritual procreation. In Mormon cosmology, there is no hell in the sense that Christians believe. So of course we’re talking past each other. In Mormon theology, there is no sense that all of the Bible is about Jesus Christ or that He was God’s final and ultimate revelation to mankind. Jesus is only our spiritual elder brother who did what an elder brother was supposed to do so that all of the Heavenly Father’s children could attain godhood. Whew!
 
My use of ‘flurple’ was in no way meant to mock the idea; it was simply and only to substitute a different sound for the concept, so that it is the concept under discussion, not the word.
No worries, I didn’t think you were mocking at all, I apologize if my comments made it seem like I thought otherwise.
Hmmn…well, I’m the Mormon, and I’m here to defend Mormonism. 😉 I’m going to be more interested in explaining the LDS viewpoint than anything else. This is why, when Catholics or other Christians start quoting that verse in Hebrews from Paul, I guess I really don’t get the point.
Well, yeah, fair 'nuf! Defending what you believe makes sense.
It just seems so illogical to use a statement by a man who has to be the epitome of post Messiah "prophet,’ as a prooftext that after Christ, there wouldn’t be any prophets.
Not sure what to tell you on that, for a coupla reasons. First, I see the point they are making and I also understand yours. And second, I really cannot comment on “Paul’s” statement because I don’t believe Paul is the author of Hebrews. You see, many biblical scholars (not just Catholic ones), don’t attribute Hebrews to Paul (there are other letters that are traditionally attributed to him that he didn’t write either, I would have to get my notes to tell you which ones as I don’t have them memorized). So, since I don’t believe Paul is the one who wrote the verses in question…well, it’s a non-starter for me.
 
This is a thread that could only cause anyone who cares about LDS people to feel sad. There are communication gaps that some have noticed here, but even some LDS people, let alone Christians, may not know how profound they are. Mormons do not even mean the same thing as Christians when we talk about “Salvation”. Although the original “Articles of Fath” of the LDS Church said that people are “saved by obedience to the laws and ordinances of the ‘gospel’”, by the time the LDS people were emmigrating to Utah, that idea had already evolved to mean that all people are “saved” by the Sacrifice and Resurrection of Jesus Christ because his Atonement reversed the effects of the Fall of Adam so that all people will be resurrected. But the real difference is in whether, or to what extent individuals will be “glorified” or exalted. Only those who obey all the laws and ordinances of the church, including “Eternal Marriage” will be exalted to the “Celestial Kingdom” and enjoy the kind of “Eternal Life” that our Heavenly Father enjoys, including spiritual procreation. In Mormon cosmology, there is no hell in the sense that Christians believe. So of course we’re talking past each other. In Mormon theology, there is no sense that all of the Bible is about Jesus Christ or that He was God’s final and ultimate revelation to mankind. Jesus is only our spiritual elder brother who did what an elder brother was supposed to do so that all of the Heavenly Father’s children could attain godhood. Whew!
No wonder you left the LDS church. You didn’t understand the doctrine then and you don’t understand it now. Of course all of the Bible is about Jesus Christ. That is better taught in Mormonism than in any other religion. Jesus Christ is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. He is in no way “only our spiritual elder Brother”–that is to not understand anything about His position in the pre-mortal world or His position in eternity. He was completely unique and was God the Son who became “God with us” on earth.

Mormons can understand why the Trinitarian doctrine evolved from the Bible and its teachings. Since the Old Testament talked about “One God”, and since Christ came to earth as “God with us”, of course people trying to reconcile their beliefs about the Old and New Testaments would say to themselves, “OK–Jesus is God and there is One God, so Jesus is that One God and there needs to be a doctrine that says God is three-in-one.” But this does not make it a correct doctrine, nor an understandable doctrine–it makes it a doctrine that accommodates the earlier teaching of there being “One God” which really was talking about Jesus Christ as Jehovah and as the God who has the primary responsibility for the salvation of the children of God on this earth.

I don’t even know if you understand the doctrine of the resurrection Christ taught, that all humankind will be resurrected. Nor do I sense that you understand that LDS do believe in “hell” and do believe people will indeed go there and suffer for their sins, and that some will remain there forever and ever while others will be relieved from suffering the pains of hell after the Millenium is nearly over and as they are resurrected having repented and having finally accepted the conditional salvation Christ offers them through His atoning grace, just as He offered that conditional salvation to the people who were destroyed in the flood as described in 1 Peter 3:18-20, to whom He went to preach the gospel.
 
No wonder you left the LDS church. You didn’t understand the doctrine then and you don’t understand it now. Of course all of the Bible is about Jesus Christ. That is better taught in Mormonism than in any other religion. Jesus Christ is Jehovah, the God of Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob. He is in no way “only our spiritual elder Brother”–that is to not understand anything about His position in the pre-mortal world or His position in eternity. He was completely unique and was God the Son who became “God with us” on earth.

Mormons can understand why the Trinitarian doctrine evolved from the Bible and its teachings. Since the Old Testament talked about “One God”, and since Christ came to earth as “God with us”, of course people trying to reconcile their beliefs about the Old and New Testaments would say to themselves, “OK–Jesus is God and there is One God, so Jesus is that One God and there needs to be a doctrine that says God is three-in-one.” But this does not make it a correct doctrine, nor an understandable doctrine–it makes it a doctrine that accommodates the earlier teaching of there being “One God” which really was talking about Jesus Christ as Jehovah and as the God who has the primary responsibility for the salvation of the children of God on this earth.

I don’t even know if you understand the doctrine of the resurrection Christ taught, that all humankind will be resurrected. Nor do I sense that you understand that LDS do believe in “hell” and do believe people will indeed go there and suffer for their sins, and that some will remain there forever and ever while others will be relieved from suffering the pains of hell after the Millenium is nearly over and as they are resurrected having repented and having finally accepted the conditional salvation Christ offers them through His atoning grace, just as He offered that conditional salvation to the people who were destroyed in the flood as described in 1 Peter 3:18-20, to whom He went to preach the gospel.
ParkerD -

Religious Debate 101 - Attack ideas not the person.
 
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