Are you saying those are wrong, and only the traditional US translation is right?
No. I am saying that the literal translation of the Greek does not mean those things. I have not found a single Greek scholar that believes the translation “Lead is not into temptation” is inaccurate. (Though some say “Bring us not into temptation” is more accurate, and some use to the test/to the trial/into temptation.)
That doesn’t make the changes “wrong,” as in bad or evil. Objectively, they are not as accurate. Subjectively, they say good things, things that are not false. They are not “wrong”.
It depends on the focus, or the priority.
To me, the most important purpose of the Church is to preserve, protect, and teach the Truth of God’s full revelation to us, for all
People, in all times, until Christ returns.
With this as the priority, we have no right to change what we have been given to mean something else, even if the something else is good.
If your priority is to reach as many people as you can and bring them to truth, you would see Christ’s words as a stumbling block for the less well catechised. Naturally you would want to make it more acceptable. That desire is not wrong.
My question is do we really have a basis that warrants changing an accurate translation of the words of Jesus Christ to something new?
James 1:13-14 says: 13 Let no one say when he is tempted, “I am tempted by God”; for God cannot be tempted with evil and he himself tempts no one; 14 but each person is tempted when he is lured and enticed by his own desire.
What the varied alternative translations are saying is that the Our Father needs to be changed because James said God tempts no one, and so therefore Jesus could not have actually said “lead us not into temptation,” even though he said it in Matthew 6:13
“13 And lead us not into temptation, But deliver us from evil.”
We can do exegesis on the meaning, catechesis on a proper understanding of what is meant, BUT CAN WE CHANGE THE WORDS OF JESUS CHRIST?
If you argue there is a better, more reliable source to consider, tell me about it!
If they were saying, “It needs to be changed because it is a bad translation and the Greek actually means…,” then it needs to be done! But that is not the case here!
If they were to say “We want to change the wording to reflect a truer sense of what he must have meant,” that is honest. And I would argue a terrible idea.
They say, “It is a bad translation, because God isn’t like that, so we need to change the original words of Christ.” That doesn’t make sense!
That is not acceptable, if your goal is to protect, preserve, and hand on the faith unadulterated.
I am not saying that those versions are bad in and of themselves, or that it would be wrong to pray that way! I am saying that Jesus told us to pray in these words…and those are not accurate translations of what he said.
If I am wrong, then please correct me. I am convinced that this is the truth of what is currently happening.