Really?
Where did I do that? .
I ask the same. You said this first, so you tell me.
It is intrinsic as he was speaking to Jewish religious leaders. .
Websters:
Etymology: French intrinsèque internal, from Late Latin intrinsecus, from Latin, adverb, inwardly; akin to Latin intra within – more at INTRA-
1 a : belonging to the essential nature or constitution of a thing b : being or relating to a semiconductor in which the concentration of charge carriers is characteristic of the material itself instead of the content of any impurities it contains
2 a : originating or due to causes within a body, organ, or part b : originating and included wholly within an organ or part – compare EXTRINSIC 1b
So, what do
you mean by “intrinsic?” You have this habit of “begging the question.” Let me know if you need more explanation.
When you drive up to a gas pump do you point out to the attendant the gas you want is NOT propane? .
Again, you beg the question. (Have you asked for assistance yet?)
You can keep repeating this, but it doesn’t get any less wrong. .
Your answer is, yet again, contradiction. (Begging the question – because, of course you are correct and you know so. But, you present no argument.)
What Jesus Christ meant by claiming deity was as different from the examples you cite as the phrase “Son of God” is between a Catholic and a Jehovah’s Witness. .
How so? (Never mind. I know already: Because you are correct for the reason that you say you are. But, I only wish that you would present an argument - other than “I am right and you are wrong” ???)
The words are the same, but the definitions are wholly different. .
And these definitions would be??? (never mind, the question is begged. [Are you getting this yet?])
No, I make fun of you, and your doctrinaire caviling…
Ad hominem argumentation. I do not attack you – I attack your method of argument.
Socrates: 399 BC, conversation with Crito.
“One should never do wrong in return, nor mistreat any man, no matter how one has been mistreated by him.” .
Socrates followed the law. Jesus did not. Although there are are many who would say that he “fulfilled” Jewish law, I say, by darn, he contradicted it. He took an “eye for an eye” and said “turn the other cheek” (you laugh at this, I know. It is hard to grasp.). But, still, there is a major differenc between Jesus and the Greek, Socrates. The latter honored Greek law and died as a result. Jesus followed his conscience. But to give credit where credit is due, you did provide an argument accompanied with an example, no matter how old and worn out.
So, to present a 60 year old international standard, the Nuremburg trials demonstrated that simply following the law is not the “summon bonum”: following orders does always equate with morality and is often quite the opposite.
(If you like, I we can debate privately so as not to bore the forum with this elementary debate.
Perhaps you should use a fly swatter with fewer holes in it.
My swatter is Kevlar, brother, Kevlar.
*** Allow me to explain “begging the question:”
It is no argument to say that Jesus was God because he said so. This is assuming the answer based on an assessment that person who is arguing is correct, i.e. that which is being argued in the first place. (There are better definitions of this – “Google” it for the “authoritative” terminology.)
Therefore, in that you stated that Jesus was correct because he was operating under Jewish tradition means nothing to the non-Christian, Non-Jew – it is illogical and implies immanence.
My contention is that Jesus was the first (or second Adam) in that he transcended tribalism, cultism, jingoism and all “isms.” It is this that separates Him, and “this” is no small feat. It cost him his life and delivered us the Cross, Western Civilization, and most of what we now enjoy.