Logical Case for Papal Authority?

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jinc1019. You asked,
Can you describe to me a single situation in which the Catholic Church, according to its own standards, felt that the death penalty was appropriate?
If I did, some people would probably just deny it.

So instead, let’s look at the principles.

Look at what is going on here.

We are not exactly sure what teaching of Luther’s in Exsurge Domine the Church is responding to (Remember the subtitle of Exsurge Domine is “Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther”).
  • Exsurge Domine (literally: “Arise, O Lord”) = “Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther”
This is another reason why it makes criticizing the Church’s corrections of Luther (without historical context) inappropriate. Because not only do we have to know exactly what the Church is saying in the proper historical context, but we ALSO need to know what LUTHER was saying that the Church is responding to.

But if what I am thinking is correct, Luther was basically saying (at some time in his public life [and he may have contradicted himself on this later too]) that the death penalty itself is intrinsically evil.

That seems to be Luther’s principle that the Church is taking issue with.

Now go to the Old Testament and look at the concept of capital punishment.

Are you going to condemn Moses at the foot of Mount Sinai for carrying out capital punishment? Are you ready to denounce Elijah as slipping into sin on Mount Carmel concerning the prophets of Baal? No of course not.

But if you take Luther’s statement (and it may not even be in writing but an oral statement so again we don’t know for sure what teaching of Luther’s the Church is responding to) as a principle, Luther’s apparent blanket statement would indict Moses.

Luther’s statement would indict Elijah too. Luther’s statement would indict others in good standing with God as well.

This would be unacceptable.

The PRINCIPLE of what Luther seems to be asserting MUST be condemned as false (if I am correct in what Luther is asserting).

That was the whole point of Exsurge Domine. To correct errors in Luther’s teachings. Not to promote Governments killing people or the Church killing people.

That was what Exsurge Domine was written in response to: “Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther” (that is after all, the subtitle of Exsurge Domine).

It was to assert people in proper authority CAN in good conscience, carry out capital punishment. Not to assert people in authority SHOULD be carrying out capital punishment.

To shed light on the fact that people (like Luther) denying this concept are wrong.

To shed light on people denying that people in proper authority CAN carry out capital punishment are incorrect in their assertion.

To shed light on people who are saying: “People in proper authority roles cannot ever carry out capital punishment” . . . . . . are people who are mistaken.

I’ll post later on the Perpetual Virginity of Mary and how this all dove-tails into the authority issue as well.

I still need to post why St. Peter being opposed by St. Paul to his face, does not do away with St. Peter’s authority (Pope Francis probably gets opposed to his face in the Confessional weekly by non-Bishop Priests and perhaps is sometimes taken to task publicly by Bishops as well—that likewise would not bear on his proper authority).

Wew! I can’t keep up with this thread.

God bless.

Excerpt from Exsurge Domine Therefore we, in this above enumeration, important as it is, wish to proceed with great care as is proper, and to cut off the advance of this plague and cancerous disease so it will not spread any further in the Lord’s field as harmful thornbushes. We have therefore held a careful inquiry, scrutiny, discussion, strict examination, and mature deliberation with each of the brothers, the eminent cardinals of the holy Roman Church, as well as the priors and ministers general of the religious orders, besides many other professors and masters skilled in sacred theology and in civil and canon law. We have found that these errors or theses are not Catholic, as mentioned above, and are not to be taught, as such; but rather are against the doctrine and tradition of the Catholic Church, and against the true interpretation of the sacred Scriptures received from the Church.
 
What is FACT is that clerical continence was universally practiced and enforced from the beginning, as an apostolic norm.

Pope Emeritus Benedict XVI as Cardinal Ratzinger is very clear – Post #436:
I’m sorry Abu, but I don’t think a single sentence (without full context) by Ratzinger proves this claim as fact. I’d also point out that the other quotation you provided in #436 actually seems to leave open the possibility that clerical celibacy was not enforced universally. As for the article you posted, I don’t find it very convincing on its own - it makes reference to many canons and Church Fathers without quoting them in detail. So, while useful for pointing towards possible evidence for your claim, it’s not convincing by itself.

As I said, this isn’t a subject I know much about, other than the fact that (at least by a certain time in Church history), the Easterns had a tradition permitting married priests.
 
It is high time to accept the facts.

**The facts:
  1. Tracing the Glorious Origins of Celibacy
    Luiz Sérgio Solimeo**
    “Let us cite three among the most important studies: Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy, by Fr. Christian Cochini, S.J.(Ignatius, San Francisco, 1990); The Case for Clerical Celibacy, by Alfons Maria Cardinal Stickler (Ignatius, San Francisco, 1995); Celibacy in the Early Church, by Fr. Stefan Heid, (Ignatius, San Francisco, 2000).
**Early Church Tradition **
“Based on solid documentation, these authors show that although one cannot speak of celibacy in the strict sense of the word (not being married), it is certain that since apostolic times the Church had as a norm that men elevated to the deaconate, priesthood and the episcopate should observe continence. If candidates happened to be married – a very common occurrence in the early Church – they were supposed to cease, with the consent of their spouses, not only marital life but even cohabitation under the same roof.”
victorclaveau.com/htm_html/Catholic%20Apologetics/Apologetics/Origins%20Priestly%20Celibacy.htm

2) “Those who think such a “long tradition” of married priests exists in the Catholic Church or who think celibacy is simply an ecclesiastical custom without theological foundation, should read, with an open mind and heart, the following:
Celibacy in the Early Church
The Case for Clerical Celibacy
The Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy”

Posted by: Mark Brumley | Friday, October 14, 2005 at 08:41 AM
insightscoop.typepad.com/2004/2005/10/priest_shortage.html

3) Priestly Celibacy and Its Roots in Christ … Interview with Fr McGovern
National Catholic REGISTER, May 19-25, 2002

“Recent scholarship on the history of celibacy in both the Easter and Western Church has shown that there is a considerable body of evidence in favour of the argument that priestly celibacy is of apostolic origin, based on Christ’s invitation to the Twelve to leave all things and follow him (cf. Mt 19:29). [5] Indeed, John Paul II points out in his 1979 Holy Thursday Letter to Priests that celibacy is so closely linked to the language of the Gospel that it refers back to the teaching of Christ and to apostolic tradition.”
Note:
[5] Christian Cochini, Apostolic Origins of Priestly Celibacy, Ignatius Press, San Francisco, 1990; Roman Cholij, Clerical Celibacy in East and West, Fowler Wright, Leominister, 1988; Alfons M. Stickler, The Case for Clerical Celibacy: Its Historical Development and Theological Foundations*, Ignatius Press, San Francisco, 1995; Stanley L. Jaki, *Theology of Priestly Celibacy, Front Royal, Va. 1997; Stefan Heid, Celibacy in the Early Church, Ignatius Press, San Francisco, 2000.
christendom-awake.org/pages/mcgovern/ncrinterview.htm
 
It is high time to accept the facts.
Excuse me? High time?
Abu, I’m not refusing to accept facts. I’ll gladly accept these (alleged) facts as true if I consider the matter and find the evidence convincing. As it is, you had shown little ground for accepting your position - although, perhaps some of the documents you’ve now cited will provide stronger evidence.
 
This excellent confirmation of perpetual continence from apostolic times needs to be widely known.

Priestly Celibacy Is Here to Stay – The History of Priestly Celibacy
Fr. Ray Ryland Ph.D

**“….the Directory on the Ministry and Life of Priests, issued in 1994 by the Congregation for the Clergy. Section 59 affirms the above interpretation of the Timothy and Titus passages. It also cites several of the early councils which mandated continence for married as well as unmarried clergy. It added that “the Church, from apostolic times, has wished to conserve the gift of perpetual continence of the clergy and choose the candidates for Holy Orders from among the celibate faithful **(cf. 2 Thess. 2:15; 1 Cor. 7:5, 9:5; 1 Tim. 3:2-12, 5:9; Tit. 1:6-8)” (emphasis added). Married men who with their wives had professed perpetual continence before ordination would be counted among the “celibate faithful.

"The Council of Carthage in 390 restated the rule of perpetual continence for all married clergy.
The Council insisted it was simply restating the unbroken tradition of the Church. Speaking of their decree, the presiding bishop (Genethlius) said, “what the apostles taught and what antiquity itself observed, let us also endeavor to keep.”[2] The same discipline was restated early in the fifth century by a Roman synod led by Pope Innocent I. Succeeding pontiffs, such as Leo the Great (440-61), upheld this teaching. We find the same teaching in Jerome, Augustine, and Ambrose. A few of the councils which restated this tradition were Tours (461), Gerona (517), Auvergne (535), and the Second Lateran Council (1139)."
cuf.org/2003/05/priestly-celibacy-is-here-to-stay-the-history-of-priestly-celibacy/
 
But if what I am thinking is correct, Luther was basically saying (at some time in his public life [and he may have contradicted himself on this later too]) that the death penalty itself is intrinsically evil.

That seems to be Luther’s principle that the Church is taking issue with.

Now go to the Old Testament and look at the concept of capital punishment.

Are you going to condemn Moses at the foot of Mount Sinai for carrying out capital punishment? Are you ready to denounce Elijah as slipping into sin on Mount Carmel concerning the prophets of Baal? No of course not.

But if you take Luther’s statement (and it may not even be in writing but an oral statement so again we don’t know for sure what teaching of Luther’s the Church is responding to) as a principle, Luther’s apparent blanket statement would indict Moses.

Luther’s statement would indict Elijah too. Luther’s statement would indict others in good standing with God as well.

This would be unacceptable.

The PRINCIPLE of what Luther seems to be asserting MUST be condemned as false (if I am correct in what Luther is asserting).

That was the whole point of Exsurge Domine. To correct errors in Luther’s teachings. Not to promote Governments killing people or the Church killing people.

That was what Exsurge Domine was written in response to: “Condemning the Errors of Martin Luther” (that is after all, the subtitle of Exsurge Domine).

It was to assert people in proper authority CAN in good conscience, carry out capital punishment. Not to assert people in authority SHOULD be carrying out capital punishment.

To shed light on the fact that people (like Luther) denying this concept are wrong.

To shed light on people denying that people in proper authority CAN carry out capital punishment are incorrect in their assertion.

To shed light on people who are saying: “People in proper authority roles cannot ever carry out capital punishment” . . . . . . are people who are mistaken.

I’ll post later on the Perpetual Virginity of Mary and how this all dove-tails into the authority issue as well.

I still need to post why St. Peter being opposed by St. Paul to his face, does not do away with St. Peter’s authority (Pope Francis probably gets opposed to his face in the Confessional weekly by non-Bishop Priests and perhaps is sometimes taken to task publicly by Bishops as well—that likewise would not bear on his proper authority).

Wew! I can’t keep up with this thread.

God bless.

Excerpt from Exsurge Domine Therefore we, in this above enumeration, important as it is, wish to proceed with great care as is proper, and to cut off the advance of this plague and cancerous disease so it will not spread any further in the Lord’s field as harmful thornbushes. We have therefore held a careful inquiry, scrutiny, discussion, strict examination, and mature deliberation with each of the brothers, the eminent cardinals of the holy Roman Church, as well as the priors and ministers general of the religious orders, besides many other professors and masters skilled in sacred theology and in civil and canon law. We have found that these errors or theses are not Catholic, as mentioned above, and are not to be taught, as such; but rather are against the doctrine and tradition of the Catholic Church, and against the true interpretation of the sacred Scriptures received from the Church.
Cathoholic,
I can appreciate the response and I will leave this issue where it now stands. You make a reasonable argument based on the Bible regarding your position, but I don’t believe it’s true. I don’t believe there is any evidence at all to suggest that Martin Luther was opposed to the death penalty in general (although there might be). I believe the evidence shows that Luther opposed burning heretics at the stake (and likely all executions of heretics). The Church came out and confirmed that this was an error. I agree that because the Church didn’t elaborate, we can’t be 100% sure precisely why the Church was referencing here, I think we should, when in doubt, tread cautiously but take the Church at its plain words, and the plain words uttered by the pope in 1520 were essentially (paraphrasing), “the belief that burning heretics at the stake is against the ‘Will of the Spirit’ is an error.”

Your argument is essentially that the Church was simply opposing the view that the death penalty is never appropriate…and while that is factually true, it is also true that they were specifically arguing that the death penalty by burning could be, at least in some imaginable instances, valid for heretics according to the Will of the Holy Spirit. Now, I don’t believe that this teaching is true…and I don’t believe the Old Testament can be used to justify it. By that standard, Gentiles should all be circumcised and everyone should be eating kosher and keeping the Torah. Yet, here we are, doing none of those things.

No one has the right to question God, but God didn’t speak on this issue…a pope did. That’s the distinction here. Obviously you and I disagree on this point, which is why we should probably leave it where it is unless you have more compelling evidence.

At any rate, I am very appreciate for your responses and your wisdom on these matters.

Justin
 
jinc1019. You stated:
Obviously you and I disagree on this point, which is why we should probably leave it where it is unless you have more compelling evidence.
Fair enough jinc1019. I am not trying to get you to agree with me. I am merely illustrating the immense authority that Jesus gave His Church to interpret and clarify doctrine.

People in Protestantism are eventually forced to assume that authority for themselves.

People in Orthodoxies get much closer to Apostolic protection and teachings.

People in Catholicism who affirm the faith and submit to it, have a great gift indeed (of the fullness of doctrinal truths).

You also stated:
My point was that something like the perpetual virginity of Mary was not, by any standard, a universal teaching of the early Church. There is no evidence that supports it, but the Catholic Church teaches it.
Actually there was universal teaching of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary.

This is the main point of why Bishop Bonosus lost his see over this issue in the 300’s before any Ecumenical Conciliar statement on Mary’s Perpetual Virginity (if interested, see this link please).

But a General or Ecumenical Council (Second Council of Constantinople) back in the mid-500’s A.D. just matter-of-factly referred to Mary as “Ever-Virgin” four times without any felt need to defend this terminology.

The Perpetual Virginity of Mary was not a new doctrine but a “deepening of faith” when the Church more explicitly defined it.

CCC 499a The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man. . . .

The Bishops always saw Mary’s Perpetual Virginity as being in accord with the teachings of the Fathers.

The Lateran Council in 649 A.D. (a local Council but held under Pope St. Martin I)

LATERAN COUNCIL If anyone does not, according to the holy Fathers, confess truly and properly that holy Mary, ever virgin and immaculate, is Mother of God, since this latter age she conceived in true reality without human seed from the Holy Spirit, God the Word himself, who before the ages was born of God the Father, and gave birth to him without corruption, her virginity remaining equally inviolate after the birth, let him be condemned.
– The Lateran Council in 649 A.D. (a local Council but held under Pope St. Martin I)

The Second Council of Nicaea (787 A.D.) referred to “Mary the ever-virgin”, and later stated:

To summarize, we declare that we defend free from any innovations all the written and unwritten ecclesiastical traditions that have been entrusted to us.
– The Second Council of Nicaea

If you go to Mass today, you will recite the Confiteor. . . .

. . . .therefore I ask blessed Mary ever-Virgin, all the Angels and Saints, and you, my brothers and sisters, to pray for me to the Lord our God. . . .

The early Church delicately and tastefully did not go into any details about Mary’s virginity other than referring to Mary as “the Virgin” until forced to go into more detail by heretics within the Church. This occurred about the mid to late 300’s A.D.

Before the mid to late 300’s A.D., yes the denial of Mary’s Virginity was pervasive among heretics outside the Church like Cerinthus and Ebion, but NOT within the Church.

After the mid to late 300’s A.D., the Church referred often to the Blessed Virgin Mary specifically as “Ever-Virgin” so as to prevent and preempt confusion (this was mostly satisfactory until the Protestant Reformation).

The confusion that had began metastasizing now WITHIN the Church (i.e. from the minds of Helvidius who referred to himself as “a priest” and Bishop Bonosus) was stopped because of this further defining of what had already been believed by the Church.

Even before the late 300’s A.D. you will see St. Basil the Great, St. Epiphanius, and St. Athanasius use phrases like “the Virgin” in their writings and elsewhere in their writings matter-of-factly interchangeably use the phrase “Ever-Virgin” when referring to Our Blessed Mother. This suggests they were already responding to implicit heretical rumblings from some of the confused faithful of what would later be explicitly burped-up from Helvidius et al.

Before the mid 300’s, the Church gracefully and politely just referred to Mary as “the Virgin” as there would be no reason to get “specific”.

We of course don’t refer to women who have had carnal relations as “the Virgin”.

The early Church before the 300’s just matter-of-factly referred to Mary as “the Virgin”. When I did a computer search with an Early Church Father computer program I have, it was a proverbial overload as to the Fathers all matter-of-factly referring to the Blessed Virgin Mary as “the Virgin”.

No they (before the 300’s) didn’t use this phrase interchangeably with “Ever-Virgin” but before Helvidius, there was no need to.

This is yet another reason to trust in the authority of the teaching Magisterium which is really what this thread is all about.
 
jinc1019. You stated:

Fair enough jinc1019. I am not trying to get you to agree with me. I am merely illustrating the immense authority that Jesus gave His Church to interpret and clarify doctrine.

People in Protestantism are eventually forced to assume that authority for themselves.

People in Orthodoxies get much closer to Apostolic protection and teachings.

People in Catholicism who affirm the faith and submit to it, have a great gift indeed (of the fullness of doctrinal truths).

You also stated:

Actually there was universal teaching of the Perpetual Virginity of Mary.

This is the main point of why Bishop Bonosus lost his see over this issue in the 300’s before any Ecumenical Conciliar statement on Mary’s Perpetual Virginity (if interested, see this link please).

But a General or Ecumenical Council (Second Council of Constantinople) back in the mid-500’s A.D. just matter-of-factly referred to Mary as “Ever-Virgin” four times without any felt need to defend this terminology.

The Perpetual Virginity of Mary was not a new doctrine but a “deepening of faith” when the Church more explicitly defined it.

CCC 499a The deepening of faith in the virginal motherhood led the Church to confess Mary’s real and perpetual virginity even in the act of giving birth to the Son of God made man. . . .

The Bishops always saw Mary’s Perpetual Virginity as being in accord with the teachings of the Fathers.

The Lateran Council in 649 A.D. (a local Council but held under Pope St. Martin I)

LATERAN COUNCIL If anyone does not, according to the holy Fathers, confess truly and properly that holy Mary, ever virgin and immaculate, is Mother of God, since this latter age she conceived in true reality without human seed from the Holy Spirit, God the Word himself, who before the ages was born of God the Father, and gave birth to him without corruption, her virginity remaining equally inviolate after the birth, let him be condemned.
– The Lateran Council in 649 A.D. (a local Council but held under Pope St. Martin I)

The Second Council of Nicaea (787 A.D.) referred to “Mary the ever-virgin”, and later stated:

To summarize, we declare that we defend free from any innovations all the written and unwritten ecclesiastical traditions that have been entrusted to us.
– The Second Council of Nicaea

If you go to Mass today, you will recite the Confiteor. . . .

. . . .therefore I ask blessed Mary ever-Virgin, all the Angels and Saints, and you, my brothers and sisters, to pray for me to the Lord our God. . . .

The early Church delicately and tastefully did not go into any details about Mary’s virginity other than referring to Mary as “the Virgin” until forced to go into more detail by heretics within the Church. This occurred about the mid to late 300’s A.D.

Before the mid to late 300’s A.D., yes the denial of Mary’s Virginity was pervasive among heretics outside the Church like Cerinthus and Ebion, but NOT within the Church.

After the mid to late 300’s A.D., the Church referred often to the Blessed Virgin Mary specifically as “Ever-Virgin” so as to prevent and preempt confusion (this was mostly satisfactory until the Protestant Reformation).

The confusion that had began metastasizing now WITHIN the Church (i.e. from the minds of Helvidius who referred to himself as “a priest” and Bishop Bonosus) was stopped because of this further defining of what had already been believed by the Church.

Even before the late 300’s A.D. you will see St. Basil the Great, St. Epiphanius, and St. Athanasius use phrases like “the Virgin” in their writings and elsewhere in their writings matter-of-factly interchangeably use the phrase “Ever-Virgin” when referring to Our Blessed Mother. This suggests they were already responding to implicit heretical rumblings from some of the confused faithful of what would later be explicitly burped-up from Helvidius et al.

Before the mid 300’s, the Church gracefully and politely just referred to Mary as “the Virgin” as there would be no reason to get “specific”.

We of course don’t refer to women who have had carnal relations as “the Virgin”.

The early Church before the 300’s just matter-of-factly referred to Mary as “the Virgin”. When I did a computer search with an Early Church Father computer program I have, it was a proverbial overload as to the Fathers all matter-of-factly referring to the Blessed Virgin Mary as “the Virgin”.

No they (before the 300’s) didn’t use this phrase interchangeably with “Ever-Virgin” but before Helvidius, there was no need to.

This is yet another reason to trust in the authority of the teaching Magisterium which is really what this thread is all about.
Excellent post! 👍
 
I said I’d try to get back on this thread about WHY St. Paul’s opposition to St. Peter
in Galatians chapter 2, does NOT undermine St. Peter’s authoritative teachings (it actually re-affirms it).

St. Paul writes about how he opposed St. Peter to his face for leaving table fellowship with the Gentiles so as not to scandalize the Judaizers or “circumcision party”.

GALATIANS 2:11 11 But when Cephas came to Antioch I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned.

Does this do away with St. Peter’s authority (and subsequently his successors, the Popes) to teach in a divinely protected manner? No. Why not?

To be able to answer that you must first know there are times when St. Peter (or the Popes) teach in an authoritative manner and times when they do not teach authoritatively.

How they behave in their personal life is NOT a time of protected official teaching. If it were, the Gospel of Mark (composed by St. Peter but written by St. Mark) and 1st and 2nd Peter would not be Sacred Scripture. After all, if Galatians 2 invalidates St. Peter’s teaching authority, why accept St. Peter’s Scripture writings as inspired?

GALATIANS 2:11-14 11 But when Cephas came to Antioch I opposed him to his face, because he stood condemned. 12 For before certain men came from James, he ate with the Gentiles; but when they came he drew back and separated himself, fearing the circumcision party. 13 And with him the rest of the Jews acted insincerely, so that even Barnabas was carried away by their insincerity. 14 But when I saw that they were not straightforward about the truth of the gospel, I said to Cephas before them all, “If you, though a Jew, live like a Gentile and not like a Jew, how can you compel the Gentiles to live like Jews?”

These verses actually assert St. Peter as teaching truth here. Possibly not living out truth here, but don’t rule that out from these verses either.

The objection is, if St. Peter is giving “bad example” he MUST be “teaching incorrectly”. Yet St. Paul’s correction and writings assert quite the opposite. How? Let’s look.

Some people opposed to any type of Papal infallibility wished Galatians 2:11 said:

NOT GALATIANS 2:11?? (Phantom verse) 11 But when Cephas came to Antioch I opposed him to his face, because when he removed himself from table fellowship with the Gentiles on account of the “circumcision party”, Cephas officially taught incorrect doctrine.

Objection
: But Peter IS teaching here! He’s teaching by example—a bad example.

Answer: Then you misunderstand what infallibility is and isn’t. St. Peter is still not teaching anything in his official capacity. St. Paul corrected St. Peter for how Peter “stood” not “teached” (taught)!

The Church has always taught Popes are NOT impeccable in the way they live (“When you turn again [after your fall Simon and your thrice denials before the cock crows], strengthen the brethren”—see Luke 22:32). They are infallible when they teach in an infallible manner (see elsewhere for specifics of when and how this occurs).

Galatians 2:11-14 implicitly affirms Peter was teaching correctly but possibly (and only possibly) BEHAVING incorrectly. Why?

The word for “insincerely” above in Galatians 2 also means “hypocrisy”. That’s why even the NIV Protestant translation explicitly uses the word “hypocrisy” here.

Objector: That’s right. Peter’s “hypocrisy” disqualifies him from teaching infallibly.

Answer: No it doesn’t disqualify St. Peter from teaching infallibly. Let’s look at it.

GALATIANS 2:13 (NIV) 13 The other Jews joined him in his hypocrisy, so that by their hypocrisy even Barnabas was led astray.

“Hypocrisy” means saying one thing and doing another.

If St. Peter is carrying out a wrong action here in Galatians . . . . yet he is committing “hypocrisy” . . . . what would that mean Peter was teaching?

It would mean St. Peter is TEACHING one thing (affirming full fellowship with Jewish and Gentile Christians) and DOING the opposite thing (leaving table fellowship with Gentile Christians because of some of the Jewish Christian “circumcision party” showing up).

Q: What is the “doing” that St. Peter “did”?

A: Walking away from table fellowship with Gentiles.

Q: So WHAT would St. Peter have been “SAYING” or “teaching” in his teachings if what he was doing was contradictory to what he was saying?

A: It would mean that St. Peter was TEACHING Gentile and Jewish Christians, DO have fellowship! St. Paul implies to us that this is what St. Peter was (correctly) teaching.

Let’s go into a little more depth in the next post and see St. Paul actually teach and do what St. Peter may have partially been trying to accomplish in Galatians 2 (in addition to his “fearing” the circumcision party).
 
Continued from last post concerning Petrine Authority . . .

What Does St. Paul Teach Concerning Prudential Evangelism and How Does
That Relate To Galatians Chapter 2 and the Authority Concept in General?


Sometimes people wrongly assert Galatians 2 (Gal. 2:11-14) illustrates St. Peter teaching incorrectly in his official teaching capacity because he allegedly sinned by removing table-fellowship with Gentiles due to the “circumcision party” showing up.

Apart from a misunderstanding of the infallibility concept, they contend this “sin” negates St. Peter’s teaching authority.

Yet St. Paul himself teaches the principle of prudential evangelism.

Although it doesn’t affect St. Peter’s teaching authority, we admittedly don’t know for sure WHAT St. Peter’s motives were in Galatians 2 except in some sense fear. Was there more to it? We do not know. Was the fear from imprisonment, beatings, etc., or did it include fear of failing to properly evangelize the circumcision party?

We are not told.

But if St. Peter was motivated by evangelism of the Judaizers too, St. Paul teaches this principle as being praiseworthy!

1st CORINTHIANS 9:20 20 To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews; to those under the law I became as one under the law–though not being myself under the law–that I might win those under the law.

St. Paul teaches the appropriateness of trying to NOT scandalize people when evangelizing them. Certainly that does NOT mean it is OK to “commit sin” even with good intentions to evangelize people (see Romans 3:8).

But there are times when prudential judgment in evangelism isn’t sinful and is even good.

The potential situation in Galatians 2 is that St. Peter is trying to win over Judaizers to the fullness of truth, trying to be all things to all people as St. Paul himself TEACHES!

1st CORINTHIANS 9:20-23 20 To the Jews I became as a Jew, in order to win Jews; to those under the law I became as one under the law--though not being myself under the law–that I might win those under the law. 21 To those outside the law I became as one outside the law–not being without law toward God but under the law of Christ–that I might win those outside the law. 22 To the weak I became weak, that I might win the weak. I have become all things to all men, that I might by all means save some. 23 I do it all for the sake of the gospel, that I may share in its blessings.

In Galatians 2, St. Peter may have thought that removing himself from Gentile table fellowship would remove a stumbling block for the Jews who were in some sense considering a fuller Christianity.

If this were the case, then St. Peter removing himself from Gentile table fellowship when “the circumcision party” arrived, may have been the most prudent, reasonable, and Scriptural thing to do (as Pat Madrid points out in his book Pope Fiction).

Objector: “No! It would be hypocritical and even if that was part of the reason, it’s not a Scriptural reason to carry out this so-called “prudent evangelization” act! Peter should have stayed put!” This means Peter can’t teach infallibly!!

Answer to the Objector: Well you may think so, but consider the following:

St. Peter wrote 1st and 2nd Peter and probably the Gospel of Mark (St. Mark was St. Peter’s scribe history tells us). Are these not “authoritative” because of what you think concerning table fellowship and not wanting to scandalize his fellow Jews?

St. Peter was already under intense criticism from the Judaizers, (the “circumcision party”) because he WAS eating with the Gentiles (I’m not necessarily excusing him in Galatians 2 incidentally).

ACTS 11:1-3 1 Now the apostles and the brethren who were in Judea heard that the Gentiles also had received the word of God. 2 So when Peter went up to Jerusalem, the circumcision party criticized him, 3 saying, Why did you go to uncircumcised men and eat with them?

St. Paul does virtually the same thing as St. Peter did! St. Paul carries out Jewish ritual laws to appease and pacify Jews who were apparently considering Christianity (enough to listen to them). And St. Paul even does this on someone ELSE—St. Timothy (“Ouch!”).

ACTS 16:3 3 Paul wanted Timothy to accompany him; and he took him and circumcised him because of the Jews that were in those places, for they all knew that his father was a Greek.

Listen to St. Paul’s Scriptural admonition regarding these sticky situations.

ROMANS 14:13-15 13 Then let us no more pass judgment on one another, but rather decide never to put a stumbling block or hindrance in the way of a brother. 14 I know and am persuaded in the Lord Jesus that nothing is unclean in itself; but it is unclean for any one who thinks it unclean. 15 If your brother is being injured by what you eat, you are no longer walking in love. Do not let what you eat cause the ruin of one for whom Christ died.

The Judaizers would be scandalized by St. Peter eating with the Gentiles and more scandalized if they see St. Peter eating unclean food.

If St. Peter was afraid concerning scandalizing the Judaizers (in Galatians 2) to evangelize them, then St. Paul may have been hasty in criticizing St. Peter. I’m not saying that’s the case, but I am saying IF this were the case, then the conclusion follows.

Or one could conclude St. Paul was guilty of the same “sin”. Then St. PAUL’S authority must likewise be rejected if you use a consistent logic in rejecting St. Peter’s authority.

St. Paul may have actually learned these principles above that he taught in Sacred Scripture, in part from St. Peter’s actions!
 
3) Thus what he does not know are the facts that the Orthodox broke because they wanted married priests, denied the primacy and infallibility of the Pope, adopted contraception, denied the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception, and permitted divorce and remarriage.
IMO, posts like this are not worthy of response.
Abu, those may be points of difference now, but to be accurate, they are hardly all reasons why the schism occurred in the first place. Contraception was not a reason for the schism…wider acceptance of it (and, from what I understand, it is not universally and definitively accepted) in the EOC is only recent, as is the case with virtually all Christian denominations in which the practice has been accepted to one extent or another.
The EOC does not deny the Immaculate Conception, although it does not hold our dogma as a matter of faith.
To be clear, the Easterners had married priests prior to the schism - from what I understand, one of the points of friction between West and East was insistence against married priests by Western missionaries, unless I’m mistaken. It wasn’t as though the East rebelled against a pre-existing universal law of priestly celibacy (not that you were necessarily implying that).
I don’t know much about the history of divorce and remarriage in the EOC, but I’ve never heard it cited as a reason for the split.
See above comment.
 
The reality is the rejection of the Christ-given papal authority which from the beginning assented to the Apostolic Norm of priestly celibacy, which was unilaterally broken at Trullo, and which has developed into the facts of divorce, remarriage and contraception among the Orthodox.

Priestly Celibacy Is Here to Stay – The History of Priestly Celibacy
Fr. Ray Ryland Ph.D

**"Breaking with Tradition **
Those who advocate optional clerical celibacy often appeal to the Eastern Orthodox practice as a valid apostolic precedent. (But how could there be two contradictory “apostolic” traditions?) Prior to 692 all the Eastern Churches followed the apostolic tradition requiring continence of both married and unmarried clergy. The Council of Trullo in 692 radically changed this discipline.

"In Canon 13, Trullo explicitly (and polemically) rejected the discipline of Rome—that is, the universal discipline observed to that time. The Council decreed that henceforth married men ordained to the diaconate and the priesthood should be allowed to remain in conjugal union with their wives after ordination. This privilege was not extended to married men ordained to the episcopate. The Council ruled that these others would still have to live in
perpetual continence after ordination, but gave no reason for this ruling.

"This was a significant break with apostolic tradition. The Council tried to justify its actions by appealing to the Council of Carthage (397). When it quoted Carthage as a precedent, Trullo changed what Carthage had decreed in order to provide a precedent for Trullo’s unprecedented action. The Carthaginian canons were widely known. Trullo did not simply make a mistake. Trullo falsified the Carthaginian canons for its own purposes. This is the origin of the Eastern Orthodox discipline regarding priestly celibacy.

“Ever since the Eastern Churches separated themselves from Rome, Rome has always referred to the Eastern discipline in respectful terms, so as not to widen the breach. But Rome has never accepted the Trullan canon as a valid ecumenical decree. Rome has studiously avoided suggesting that the Eastern practice is of equal value with the apostolic tradition of clerical celibacy preserved by Rome.”
cuf.org/2003/05/priestly-celibacy-is-here-to-stay-the-history-of-priestly-celibacy/
 
The reality is the rejection of the Christ-given papal authority which from the beginning assented to the Apostolic Norm of priestly celibacy, which was unilaterally broken at Trullo, and which has developed into the facts of divorce, remarriage and contraception among the Orthodox.
Are you saying that rejection of the requirement of celibacy has led to contraception, divorce and remarriage?
 
MilesVitae #451
Are you saying that rejection of the requirement of celibacy has led to contraception, divorce and remarriage?
My #450 is crystal clear: “The reality is the rejection of the Christ-given papal authority… has developed into the facts of divorce, remarriage and contraception among the Orthodox.”

Here, it started with the rejection of the apostolic norm of priestly celibacy – every sect that has rejected the papal primacy has fallen into other errors – of the seven great councils of the first millennium each one of those councils was rejected by significant minorities of baptized persons (Arians, Monophysites, Nestorians, etc.) who professed Christianity.
See: rtforum.org/lt/lt133.html
 
The mistaken notions of “the sense of the faithful” already displayed are now flagrantly displayed again by none other than a Catholic Bishop!

**'Bishop Lynch saves his strongest language for the question of birth control: **
Finally, on the matter of artificial contraception the responses might be characterized by the saying, “that train left the station long ago”. Catholics have made up their minds and the sensus fidelium suggests the rejection of Church teaching on this subject.’

On the ‘sense of the faithful,’ Bishop Lynch is exactly wrong
By Phil Lawler, February 25, 2014

“It’s impossible for the sensus fidelium to reject Church teaching; it’s a contradiction in terms. The sense of the faithful is in accord with what the Church teaches; that’s what it means to be faithful. The Catechism of the Catholic Church (92) teaches that the sense of the faithful is evident “when, from the bishops to the last of the faithful, they manifest a universal consent in matters of faith and morals.”

“Of course, the *sensus fidelium *cannot be confused with the sociological reality of a majority opinion,” Pope Francis reminded the International Theological Commission in December. Of course.”
catholicculture.org/commentary/the-city-gates.cfm?id=744

Exactly. The reality is that Vatican II’s Lumen Gentium #12 mandates that “the whole body of the faithful….cannot err in matters of belief” ONLY WHEN as “the People of God guided by the sacred teaching authority (Magisterium) and OBEYING it, receives not the mere word of men but truly the word of God (Cf. 1Th. 2:13)",….
 
My #450 is crystal clear: “The reality is the rejection of the Christ-given papal authority… has developed into the facts of divorce, remarriage and contraception among the Orthodox.”
Ah, got it. It wasn’t entirely clear and, when I first read it, seemed like you were saying a rejection of normative priestly celibacy led to acceptance of divorce and contraception.
 
MilesVitae #454
Ah, got it. It wasn’t entirely clear and, when I first read it, seemed like you were saying a rejection of normative priestly celibacy led to acceptance of divorce and contraception.
You’re welcome Miles.

God bless.
 
Just a follow up.

Earlier in this thread, we had discussed the concept of “exterminate” (Latin: exterminare) as it relates to Catholic Church documents (specifically in Exsurge Domine).

I happened to be listening to a debate tonight here and heard Karl Keating discussing this very point only it was NOT concerning Exsurge Domine, but the same “exterminate/ exterminare” CONCEPT regarding Pope Martin V.

Keating points out “exterminare” used here, merely means to “deport”.

Some of the posters have brought up this point too (but not expounded on it).

Below is a link AND transcript excerpt from Karl Keating debating Dave Hunt addressing the concept of “exterminate” as it concerned Pope Martin V. The Church used the Latin word “exterminare”.

The debate is labeled as “Dave Hunt vs. Robert Fastiggi / Roman Catholic debates (2 debates)” but the first debate is Dave Hunt Vrs. Karl Keating. Here.

You can hear Karl’s 30-second comment on “exterminate” or more correctly, “exterminare” here at 54:58-55:28.

Note also when Keating uses the word “exterminare”, Keating (appropriately in Latin) trills his tongue on the “r” sound. It will sound as, “ex-term-in-ah-tay.”

I have also provided the exact transcript from the debate here below AND several Latin dictionaries (with accompanying links) that all support what Karl is saying.

Quote from Karl Keating (rebutting Dave Hunt’s assertions)

So many problems. I’ll just go randomly as he went randomly.

He said, Pope Martin the V ordered the extermination of the Hussites.

The word in Latin is exterminare. It does not mean kill. It means to “DEPORT”!

It’s a Latin term. And he brings it into English, thinks that the Latin word means the same as its English derivative. It does not!

Martin did not say that the Hussites should be killed. He instructed the princes of the realm to deport the heretics to another country.

Karl (as usual) I think is right here. Let’s look at several on-line Latin dictionaries that all support what Mr. Keating is saying.

One example:

Exterminare
verb
· conjugation: 1st conjugation
Definitions:
  1. banish, expel
  2. dismiss
    latin-dictionary.net/search/latin/exterminare
Another example:

Exterminare
banish, expel; dismiss;
archives.nd.edu/cgi-bin/wordz.pl?keyword=exterminare+

And yet another example:

Latin
Verb
extermināre
  1. present active infinitive of exterminō
  2. second-person singular present passive imperative of exterminō
Extermino

Latin
Verb
present active exterminō, present infinitive extermināre, perfect active extermināvī, supine exterminātum
  1. I expel, exile or banish
  2. I abolish, extirpate or destroy
en.wiktionary.org/wiki/extermino#Latin

I hope this may have been helpful.

God bless.

Cathoholic
 
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