The acceptability of a perforated condom to collect sperm raises questions for me. Okay, first, there is no general contraceptive intent because the couple wants to get pregnant, and they would be thrilled to get pregnant during the collection action. But that is not enough to make it okay to use a condom, because otherwise there would not be this perforated business. So, it does not seem to be strictly in the intent that makes it okay.
Thus it must really lie in the perforation. But the couple’s purpose would not be achieved if all the sperm went through the perforation. So they have to be specifically intending to hold some of the sperm back. Reducing sperm count delivered will reduce fertility rates. So is the deal with the perforation that it reduces the fertility rate somewhat, but not as much as a regular condom does? Remember, a condom by itself is not a 100% reduction in fertility rates. So this makes it look like a sliding scale of fertility rate reduction is determining if the action is okay or not, which doesn’t quite ring true.
It almost seems like saying that a condom is tolerable, so long as it is shoddy.