Scott_Lafrance:
Isn’t one of the 3 qualifiers for a sin to be mortal intent? Since the intent is not contraception, but actually conception, then this could not be a mortal sin, right?
I wasn’t sure what you were asking, so I avoided your question. (my real-life personality is showing, how embarassing).
Yes, for a sin to be mortal, you have to have a real clue that you are dealing with dangerous matter (a grave or serious sin) and you have to will to do it anyway.
The USCCB is saying that it is not wrong to use the perforated condom to collect a sample, thus, we should not tell people it would be a mortal sin to do it for that purpose.
However, in a generic sense, it might be possible to turn a harmless action into a mortal sin because the person doing it truly thinks it is a mortal sin and decides to willingly do the action anyway, accepting that degree of sin.
And what about a woman who has a historectomy as the only viable recourse to treat fibroid tumors, or worse, cancer. Is this act illicit, because it will effectively render her sterile?
Definitely not a sin. This is a case of the double effect rule. Removing a uterus is not fundamentally wrong. It is wrong to remove it for contraception as the purpose, but it is fine to remove it for cancer.
These next two didn’t come from Scott’s posts:
Does the morality depend on the purpose?
Yes. For example, one must have a purpose. Lying around all day for no reason is wrong in part because it lacks a reason. Lying around all day to recover from the flu is fine.
Does this mean that contraception is not intrinsically wrong?
Some Catholic moralists (not just the wackos) think that if a woman is raped and it can be determined that it will not cause an abortion, then she can take a pill to prevent contraception.
if it falls into the second case, then the use of perforated condom would be generally acceptable in ordinary marital relations.
Catholic2003, what general use are you thinking of in ordinary marital relations besides the sample collection?