Many Protestants argue "How can this man give us his flesh to eat."

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(1 Cor.11:27-30) proves that communion is not what is being talked about by Jesus in (John 6:51).
Jesus said that eating of Him would give eternal life, not damnation.
Paul was talking to believers, as Jesus was at the Last Supper.
(John 6) is talking to many who are unbelievers and the institution of breaking bread had not even been established yet.
No, what Paul is saying is that the only proper way to celebrate the Eucharist is one that corresponds to Jesus’ intention, which fits with the meaning of his command to reproduce his action in the proper spirit. If the Corinthians eat and drink unworthily, i.e., without having grasped and internalized the meaning of his death for them, they will have to answer for the body and blood, i.e., will be guilty of a sin against the Lord himself.

So, yes, Paul is speaking about the same Eucharist as the Lord Jesus Christ spoke about. It’s not a spiritual prescence, nor is it a symbol; it is the real, actual, true, authentic prescence of Jesus Christ. Jesus said he was the Bread of Life. He also said the bread is his body. Is this a mere coincidence? Or was he lying? Neither! He is in the Eucharist, and to say otherwise is a blasphemy.
 
1 Corinthians 11: 27-30 proves nothing of the kind.

Jesus is talking to his disciples, the people following him and learning from him. Not all of these had the gift of faith from above, and could not receive the body and blood worthily. These people were, so to speak, “sifted out” of the fold, to leave only those truly devoted to Christ’s teachings. In a sense, they were “unbelievers,” but these were not just riff-raff.

Similarly today, many people cannot, despite the evidence for it in Scripture (and outside of it), grasp and accept the teachings of Christ. Such people walk away, or never even enter into his full fellowship. If you are open to reading writings from very early Christians on the Eucharist, I can provide those. As in, writings from the 2nd and 3rd centuries… more from later times as well if you are interested. I can provide direct quotes; granted, these are not technically scriptural, but they are the closest to talking to the early Christians that you can possibly get.

John 6 was a preparation for the breaking of the bread, later instituted at the Last Supper. This has been said several times within the posts on this topic.

Also, brkn1, please explain the logic behind the statements that are made, because it is extremely unclear where you are coming from on many points. A step-by-step walk-through of how you come to such conclusions may either make it clearer to see how they are valid or show how they are not in the least so.
 
What Jesus meant by “bread from heaven” (cf Exodus 16:4, 15, 32-34 and the notes there; Psalm 78:24) is that the manna, thought to have been hidden by Jeremiah (2 Macc 2:5-8), was expected to reappear miraculously at Passover, in the last days.

In verse 48 “bread of life” is a figure for God’s revelation in Jesus.

The verb “eats” in verse 55 is not the classical Greek verb used of human eating, but that of animal eating: “munch,” “gnaw.” This may be part of John’s emphasis on the reality of the flesh and blood of Jesus (cf John 6:55), but the same verb eventually became the ordinary verb in Greek meaning “eat.”
 
I have been thinking about something that Jesus said in (John 6:32,33,51,58)
Jesus calls Himself “the living bread that comes down from heaven”.
The Eucharist has bread that does not come from heaven, so maybe Jesus was not talking about the Eucharist bread as some assume. It could be that maybe Jesus was using an analogy about Himself being “bread”.
I will try to clarify the point I made in this post.

The RCC says that Jesus was not speaking symbolically when He instituted the Lord’s Supper. The RCC says that transubstantiation is literal and that the man-made bread becomes Jesus in the most literal physical sense, even though none of our physical senses can detect such a claim in the least.
The fact of that assumption still has to admit that the element of the bread was made by man and came from the earth, not from heaven.
In (John 6:32, 33,51, 58), Jesus calls Himself the “BREAD that comes down from heaven”.
The RCC says that it is the BODY and BLOOD that comes down from heaven to become the BREAD that came from earth.
It is inconsistent to change back and forth from symbolic bread to literal bread, especially when the bread comes from different places. You are twisting the bible to fit your interpretation, since you are not being consistent.
I am being consistent by keeping my interpretation completely symbolic.
Jesus’ analogy in John 6 is talking about salvation that comes from coming to and believeing in (spiritually eating of Jesus and His word) Jesus. “…the words I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.” (John 6:63)
The Lord’s Supper is the commemoration of Jesus dying once for those who have come to and believed in Him.
Salvation itself and the commemoration of that salvation are two different things.
 
I will try to clarify the point I made in this post.

The RCC says that Jesus was not speaking symbolically when He instituted the Lord’s Supper. The RCC says that transubstantiation is literal and that the man-made bread becomes Jesus in the most literal physical sense, even though none of our physical senses can detect such a claim in the least.
The fact of that assumption still has to admit that the element of the bread was made by man and came from the earth, not from heaven.
In (John 6:32, 33,51, 58), Jesus calls Himself the “BREAD that comes down from heaven”.
The RCC says that it is the BODY and BLOOD that comes down from heaven to become the BREAD that came from earth.
It is inconsistent to change back and forth from symbolic bread to literal bread, especially when the bread comes from different places. You are twisting the bible to fit your interpretation, since you are not being consistent.
I am being consistent by keeping my interpretation completely symbolic.
Jesus’ analogy in John 6 is talking about salvation that comes from coming to and believeing in (spiritually eating of Jesus and His word) Jesus. “…the words I speak unto you, they are spirit, and they are life.” (John 6:63)
The Lord’s Supper is the commemoration of Jesus dying once for those who have come to and believed in Him.
Salvation itself and the commemoration of that salvation are two different things.
I think you’re overlooking an important aspect. Jesus did say He was the bread that came down from heaven, then Jesus broke the man-made bread and said, “This is my body”, even though he was standing right there. He didn’t say, this represents my body, nor did He say this bread that came down from heaven is my body. He used man-made bread! Catholics believe that through Christ’s power that man-made bread became His body and blood in the most literal physical sense. As I showed you scripture where our Lord stated He would be with us, until the end of time, we also believe He still has power to make man-made bread and wine in to His body and blood, in the most literal physical sense, through the tradition He taught the Apostles.

He confirmed this by saying, His flesh was meat indeed and His blood was drink indeed. At this point, I’d like to bring in the Aramaic verbage that was used, as we all know our Lord spoke Aramaic with the exception of using Hebrew on the cross so His crucifiers knew he spoke from scriptures to prove He was who He said He was. The Aramaic translation states, “For my body is truly food, and my blood is truly drink.”

This tradition was taught to the Apostles by our Lord and they taught Paul. After showing what Paul said in Corinthians, I believe the Apostles believed the bread and wine was the body and blood of our Lord.

At this point, I kindly ask that you stop using phrases like, we’re twisting the Bible. Catholics believe in the traditions passed down through history to us as well as scriptures. If you would accept writings of the early Church fathers, since the first century, you would see confirmation of tradition and scriptures being confirmed then and all through the ages until present time. Please see scriptures from Paul telling the Churches in his letters, to follow the traditions he taught them. I know this is something the protestants do not believe in. That is why Catholics think protestants are not enjoying the fullness of the Church and Christ as He taught.
1Co 11:2 Now I praise you, brethren, that in all things you are mindful of me and keep my ordinances as I have delivered them to you.
2Th 2:15 (2:14) Therefore, brethren, stand fast: and hold the traditions, which you have learned, whether by word or by our epistle.
2Th 3:6 And we charge you, brethren, in the name of our Lord Jesus Christ, that you withdraw yourselves from every brother walking disorderly and not according to the tradition which they have received of us.
May the peace of the Lord be with you,
Prodigal Son1
 
img92.imageshack.us/img92/9787/eucharistlf4.jpg

The Institution of the Eucharist
c.1474
by Joos Van Wassenhove
He confirmed this by saying, His flesh was meat indeed and His blood was drink indeed. At this point, I’d like to bring in the Aramaic verbage that was used, as we all know our Lord spoke Aramaic with the exception of using Hebrew on the cross so His crucifiers knew he spoke from scriptures to prove He was who He said He was. The Aramaic translation states, “For my body is truly food, and my blood is truly drink.”
This tradition was taught to the Apostles by our Lord and they taught Paul. After showing what Paul said in Corinthians, I believe the Apostles believed the bread and wine was the body and blood of our Lord.
At this point, I kindly ask that you stop using phrases like, we’re twisting the Bible. Catholics believe in the traditions passed down through history to us as well as scriptures. If you would accept writings of the early Church fathers, since the first century, you would see confirmation of tradition and scriptures being confirmed then and all through the ages until present time. Please see scriptures from Paul telling the Churches in his letters, to follow the traditions he taught them.
 
(1 Cor.11:27-30) proves that communion is not what is being talked about by Jesus in (John 6:51).
Jesus said that eating of Him would give eternal life, not damnation.
Paul was talking to believers, as Jesus was at the Last Supper.
(John 6) is talking to many who are unbelievers and the institution of breaking bread had not even been established yet.
The breaking of bread had indeed been established.

Acts 2,42
“They devoted themselves to the Apostles’ teaching and fellowship,to the breaking of bread and the prayers.”

Acts 20,7
“On the first day of the week when we gathered to break bread, Paul spoke to them because he was going to leave on the next day, and he kept on speaking until midnight.”

Paul did not say “damnation”,but “judgement”.
He was referring to illness that results from partaking of the body and blood of Christ unworthily,that is,without having been reformed. It is not the body and blood itself which condemns,but sin.

"Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body and blood of the Lord.

A person should examine himself,and so eat the bread and drink the cup.

For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgment on himself.

That is why many among you are ill and infirm,and a considerable number are dying.

If we discerned ourselves,we would not be under judgment;

but since we are judged by (the) Lord, we are being disciplined so that we may not be condemned along with the world."

Please see post 256.
 
The breaking of bread had indeed been established.

Acts 2,42
“They devoted themselves to the Apostles’ teaching and fellowship,to the breaking of bread and the prayers.”

Acts 20,7
“On the first day of the week when we gathered to break bread, Paul spoke to them because he was going to leave on the next day, and he kept on speaking until midnight.”

Paul did not say “damnation”,but “judgement”.
He was referring to illness that results from partaking of the body and blood of Christ unworthily,that is,without having been reformed. It is not the body and blood itself which condemns,but sin.

"Therefore whoever eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord unworthily will have to answer for the body and blood of the Lord.

A person should examine himself,and so eat the bread and drink the cup.

For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body, eats and drinks judgment on himself.

That is why many among you are ill and infirm,and a considerable number are dying.

If we discerned ourselves,we would not be under judgment;

but since we are judged by (the) Lord, we are being disciplined so that we may not be condemned along with the world."

Please see post 256.
“Breaking of bread” is used, instead of “Eating of Jesus”, to describe what the RCC claims the Lord’s supper is. That does not support the RCC position at all.
 
I think you’re overlooking an important aspect. Jesus did say He was the bread that came down from heaven, then Jesus broke the man-made bread and said, “This is my body”, even though he was standing right there. He didn’t say, this represents my body, nor did He say this bread that came down from heaven is my body. He used man-made bread! Catholics believe that through Christ’s power that man-made bread became His body and blood in the most literal physical sense. As I showed you scripture where our Lord stated He would be with us, until the end of time, we also believe He still has power to make man-made bread and wine in to His body and blood, in the most literal physical sense, through the tradition He taught the Apostles.

He confirmed this by saying, His flesh was meat indeed and His blood was drink indeed. At this point, I’d like to bring in the Aramaic verbage that was used, as we all know our Lord spoke Aramaic with the exception of using Hebrew on the cross so His crucifiers knew he spoke from scriptures to prove He was who He said He was. The Aramaic translation states, “For my body is truly food, and my blood is truly drink.”

This tradition was taught to the Apostles by our Lord and they taught Paul. After showing what Paul said in Corinthians, I believe the Apostles believed the bread and wine was the body and blood of our Lord.

At this point, I kindly ask that you stop using phrases like, we’re twisting the Bible. Catholics believe in the traditions passed down through history to us as well as scriptures. If you would accept writings of the early Church fathers, since the first century, you would see confirmation of tradition and scriptures being confirmed then and all through the ages until present time. Please see scriptures from Paul telling the Churches in his letters, to follow the traditions he taught them. I know this is something the protestants do not believe in. That is why Catholics think protestants are not enjoying the fullness of the Church and Christ as He taught.

May the peace of the Lord be with you,
Prodigal Son1
I’m not overlooking anything. Jesus was talking symbolically when He called Himself the “bread from heaven”. The RCC wants to apply that description to man-made bread, which is not bread from heaven.
We are warned not to worship any man-made object as God, but you insist that we are now required to do so. We are supposed to say “My Lord and my God.” when a man-made object is presented as being God during the Mass. Why is this not described as having happened at the Last Supper or even at any “breaking of bread” supper?
How does a “Stone not made with hands” fit such an object made by human hands, if it is supposed to be Jesus? It doesn’t, because it is symbolic, not literal.
 
I’m not overlooking anything. Jesus was talking symbolically when He called Himself the “bread from heaven”. The RCC wants to apply that description to man-made bread, which is not bread from heaven.
From your statement, I’m not sure you read what I posted.

Jesus said he was the bread come down from heaven…then he blessed the (man-made) bread and said this is my body. Why is what the Church uses today any different than what Christ used himself?
We are warned not to worship any man-made object as God, but you insist that we are now required to do so.
Are you saying Christ did something inappropriate by using man-made bread? You don’t have to answer that, I know you’re not, but you’re ignoring the point we’re making to you. As I explained in my previous post, Christ instituted the tradition and taught it to His Apostles. Those same Apostles passed the tradition down through the ages until present time.
We are supposed to say “My Lord and my God.” when a man-made object is presented as being God during the Mass. Why is this not described as having happened at the Last Supper or even at any “breaking of bread” supper?
It did happen, maybe not in the exact words as you state it.

Joh 6:68 And Simon Peter answered him: Lord, to whom shall we go? Thou hast the words of eternal life.
Joh 6:69 And we have believed and have known that thou art the Christ, the Son of God.
How does a “Stone not made with hands” fit such an object made by human hands, if it is supposed to be Jesus? It doesn’t, because it is symbolic, not literal.
Again, Christ used man-made bread…

You can say symbolic all you wish. That’s a step closer than those who walked out on the Lord because what he said shook their faith.

You appear to be thinking about what we’re saying. You’re starting to dance around the subject making this discussion rather circular in nature. Slow down just abit and respond to my post number 257 which was in response to your post number 255. It seemed to me you kind of accusing me of leaving a verse out just to make a point. See below.
How come you did not include (1 Corinthians 11:26) in your argument?
My response in 257 answers that question and it also points out where I had actually posted all the verses together earlier. But, you waited to try and make a point, which I think we may have sufficiently explained to you.

Believe me brkn1, I know what it is to change what you’ve been taught and believed. I swam the Tiber in 1985. With all that I’ve learned since, it was definately a one way swim for me. 😉

I was raised protestant and attended pentacostal, church of Christ, baptist and methodist churches early on. I thought the same thing about Catholics as you do now. Only when I became Catholic did the Bible make perfect logical and spiritual sense to me. 😉

May the peace of the Lord be with you,
Prodigal Son1
 
I think a passage from the Catholic Answers website can bring more clarity and structure, as well as further logical progression, to this topic (although there has been a lot of very good apologetics, don’t get me wrong. Here’s a bit from it:

Merely Figurative?

They [fundamentalists] say that in John 6 Jesus was not talking about physical food and drink, but about spiritual food and drink. They quote John 6:35: “Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’” They claim that coming to him is bread, having faith in him is drink. Thus, eating his flesh and blood merely means believing in Christ.

But there is a problem with that interpretation. As Fr. John A. O’Brien explains, “The phrase ‘to eat the flesh and drink the blood,’ when used figuratively among the Jews, as among the Arabs of today, meant to inflict upon a person some serious injury, especially by calumny or by false accusation. To interpret the phrase figuratively then would be to make our Lord promise life everlasting to the culprit for slandering and hating him, which would reduce the whole passage to utter nonsense” (O’Brien, The Faith of Millions, 215). For an example of this use, see Micah 3:3.

Fundamentalist writers who comment on John 6 also assert that one can show Christ was speaking only metaphorically by comparing verses like John 10:9 (“I am the door”) and John 15:1 (“I am the true vine”). The problem is that there is not a connection to John 6:35, “I am the bread of life.” “I am the door” and “I am the vine” make sense as metaphors because Christ is like a door—we go to heaven through him—and he is also like a vine—we get our spiritual sap through him. But Christ takes John 6:35 far beyond symbolism by saying, “For my flesh is food indeed, and my blood is drink indeed” (John 6:55).

He continues: “As the living Father sent me, and I live because of the Father, so he who eats me will live because of me” (John 6:57). The Greek word used for “eats” (trogon) is very blunt and has the sense of “chewing” or “gnawing.” This is not the language of metaphor.

Their Main Argument

For Fundamentalist writers, the scriptural argument is capped by an appeal to John 6:63: “It is the spirit that gives life, the flesh is of no avail; the words that I have spoken to you are spirit and life.” They say this means that eating real flesh is a waste. But does this make sense?

Are we to understand that Christ had just commanded his disciples to eat his flesh, then said their doing so would be pointless? Is that what “the flesh is of no avail” means? “Eat my flesh, but you’ll find it’s a waste of time”—is that what he was saying? Hardly.

The fact is that Christ’s flesh avails much! If it were of no avail, then the Son of God incarnated for no reason, he died for no reason, and he rose from the dead for no reason. Christ’s flesh profits us more than anyone else’s in the world. If it profits us nothing, so that the incarnation, death, and resurrection of Christ are of no avail, then “your faith is futile and you are still in your sins. Then those also who have fallen asleep in Christ have perished” (1 Cor. 15:17b–18).

In John 6:63 “flesh profits nothing” refers to mankind’s inclination to think using only what their natural human reason would tell them rather than what God would tell them. Thus in John 8:15–16 Jesus tells his opponents: “You judge according to the flesh, I judge no one. Yet even if I do judge, my judgment is true, for it is not I alone that judge, but I and he who sent me.” So natural human judgment, unaided by God’s grace, is unreliable; but God’s judgment is always true.

And were the disciples to understand the line “The words I have spoken to you are spirit and life” as nothing but a circumlocution (and a very clumsy one at that) for “symbolic”? No one can come up with such interpretations unless he first holds to the Fundamentalist position and thinks it necessary to find a rationale, no matter how forced, for evading the Catholic interpretation. In John 6:63 “flesh” does not refer to Christ’s own flesh—the context makes this clear—but to mankind’s inclination to think on a natural, human level. “The words I have spoken to you are spirit” does not mean “What I have just said is symbolic.” The word “spirit” is never used that way in the Bible. The line means that what Christ has said will be understood only through faith; only by the power of the Spirit and the drawing of the Father (cf. John 6:37, 44–45, 65).​

There is more, if you wish to read the entire page here:
catholic.com/library/Christ_in_the_Eucharist.asp

Yours in Christ,
Daniel
 
I am in awe at this beautiful Christian art. thank you; I said the same thing, “Oh, my goodness” to the negative remark, as if the person was there the whole time when Jesus got up from sitting.
I was commenting on the content of the painting.
After checking out the link, I saw the reason why the painter did not stay true to how the actual Last Supper was described in the Bible. The painter had to include his patron in the painting for the purpose of ingratiation.
If you carefully read the Bible, it gives a strong impression that the Last Supper was a very intimate meal among Jesus and His apostles only. It would be hard for me to imagine Jesus washing the feet of all that crowd.
Since we are talking in a condescending manner about my lack of “sophistication”, you might also ask yourself how that phrase “Oh, my goodness” might have originated.
 
Merely Figurative?

They [fundamentalists] say that in John 6 Jesus was not talking about physical food and drink, but about spiritual food and drink. They quote John 6:35: “Jesus said to them, ‘I am the bread of life; he who comes to me shall not hunger, and he who believes in me shall never thirst.’” They claim that coming to him is bread, having faith in him is drink. Thus, eating his flesh and blood merely means believing in Christ.
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Jesus said, “I AM the bread of life;…”
When Jesus made this claim, there was no piece of bread that He was holding up. Since Jesus was not a piece of bread, He had to be most definitely speaking symbolically and spiritually.

Jesus did not say that He would become a piece of bread either.
The fundamentalists are correct.
 
From your statement, I’m not sure you read what I posted.

Jesus said he was the bread come down from heaven…then he blessed the (man-made) bread and said this is my body. Why is what the Church uses today any different than what Christ used himself?

Are you saying Christ did something inappropriate by using man-made bread?

Again, Christ used man-made bread…

You can say symbolic all you wish.

May the peace of the Lord be with you,
Prodigal Son1
My point has more to do with the incorrect use of John 6 to support what you believe about the Last Supper “transubstantiation”.
The Lord’s Supper was not even instituted and the bread from heaven is not at all the same as physical man-made bread from earth. There was no “transubstantiation” in John 6.
Jesus said, “I AM the bread of life”, not “I (will become) the bread of life.”.
Jesus was talking about His spiritual coming down from heaven to become flesh physically. That means Jesus was speaking spiritually about being “the bread of life”. This type of spiritual bread does not support the physical “transubstantiation” claims of the Last Supper.
 
I was commenting on the content of the painting.
After checking out the link, I saw the reason why the painter did not stay true to how the actual Last Supper was described in the Bible. The painter had to include his patron in the painting for the purpose of ingratiation.
If you carefully read the Bible, it gives a strong impression that the Last Supper was a very intimate meal among Jesus and His apostles only. It would be hard for me to imagine Jesus washing the feet of all that crowd.
Since we are talking in a condescending manner about my lack of “sophistication”, you might also ask yourself how that phrase “Oh, my goodness” might have originated.
Friend, my reaction was not to a perceived lack of sophistication. That’s something I can’t, and won’t, judge. My comment was on how the mindset that is necessary for a rigid adherence to sola scriptura can prevent a good person from seeing things that are in plain sight.

Peace.
 
My point has more to do with the incorrect use of John 6 to support what you believe about the Last Supper “transubstantiation”.
The Lord’s Supper was not even instituted and the bread from heaven is not at all the same as physical man-made bread from earth. There was no “transubstantiation” in John 6.
Jesus said, “I AM the bread of life”, not “I (will become) the bread of life.”.
Jesus was talking about His spiritual coming down from heaven to become flesh physically. That means Jesus was speaking spiritually about being “the bread of life”. This type of spiritual bread does not support the physical “transubstantiation” claims of the Last Supper.
I have said this discussion has been circular in nature and I may have conveyed the wrong thoughts. I will try in this post to put things in their proper order and perspective.

While the Lord’s supper had not yet been instituted, it was in the process of being instituted and this was our Lord’s introduction to the supper. We have said repeatedly, that our Lord said, “I AM the bread of life.”

I agree, you will not find the word transubstantiation in the Bible, just as you won’t find the word Trinity or Sola Scriptura that you believe in. Catholics believe that this process took place because the Lord declared it so, as confirmed in 3 different Gospels, describing the actual institution of the Lord’s supper. The Apostles believed Christ as they had already been given the introduction of this tradition. This point confirms the Lord giving authority to the Apostles, as they were the true believers in all things He taught them and this was Christ’s assurance this tradition would be passed on by true men of faith. In my opinion, He made sure the non-believers were not there so there would be no misinterpretation of the Eucharist causing wrongful teachings of the tradition.
Mat 26:26 And whilst they were at supper, Jesus took bread and blessed and broke and gave to his disciples and said: Take ye and eat. This is my body.
Mat 26:27 And taking the chalice, he gave thanks and gave to them, saying: Drink ye all of this.
Mat 26:28 For this is my blood of the new testament, which shall be shed for many unto remission of sins.
Mar 14:22 And whilst they were eating, Jesus took bread; and blessing, broke and gave to them and said: Take ye. This is my body.
Mar 14:23 And having taken the chalice, giving thanks, he gave it to them. And they all drank of it.
Mar 14:24 And he said to them: This is my blood of the new testament, which shall be shed for many.
Luk 22:19 And taking bread, he gave thanks and brake and gave to them, saying: This is my body, which is given for you. Do this for a commemoration of me.
Luk 22:20 In like manner, the chalice also, after he had supped, saying: This is the chalice, the new testament in my blood, which shall be shed for you.
The Lord did not once say, “This bread is like my body” or “This bread represents my body”. He plainly states, “This is my body”. He did this with man-made bread. To believe the Lord at his words, one has to believe the process described as transubstantiation has taken place.

This tradition was taught to Paul by the Apostles, and Paul instructed the Corinthian Church on the tradition.
1Co 10:16 The chalice of benediction which we bless, is it not the communion of the blood of Christ? And the bread which we break, is it not the partaking of the body of the Lord?
1Co 11:23 For I have received of the Lord that which also I delivered unto you, that the Lord Jesus, the same night in which he was betrayed, took bread,
1Co 11:24 And giving thanks, broke and said: Take ye and eat: This is my body, which shall be delivered for you. This do for the commemoration of me.
1Co 11:25 In like manner also the chalice, after he had supped, saying: This chalice is the new testament in my blood. This do ye, as often as you shall drink, for the commemoration of me.
1Co 11:26 For as often as you shall eat this bread and drink the chalice, you shall shew the death of the Lord, until he come.
1Co 11:27 Therefore, whosoever shall eat this bread, or drink the chalice of the Lord unworthily, shall be guilty of the body and of the blood of the Lord.
1Co 11:28 But let a man prove himself: and so let him eat of that bread and drink of the chalice.
1Co 11:29 For he that eateth and drinketh unworthily eateth and drinketh judgment to himself, not discerning the body of the Lord.
Paul did not say they were partaking of bread respresenting the body of Christ. This is verified in verses, 10:16 as well as 11:27 and 29.

To hang on to one section of the Bible for agruments sake, is to ignore other parts or take a teaching out of context. If not this, then it seems to say there is contradiction in the Bible which we all deny as we all believe the Bible to be inerrant.

May the peace of the Lord be with you,
Prodigal Son1
 
I was commenting on the content of the painting.
After checking out the link, I saw the reason why the painter did not stay true to how the actual Last Supper was described in the Bible. The painter had to include his patron in the painting for the purpose of ingratiation.
If you carefully read the Bible, it gives a strong impression that the Last Supper was a very intimate meal among Jesus and His apostles only. It would be hard for me to imagine Jesus washing the feet of all that crowd.
Since we are talking in a condescending manner about my lack of “sophistication”, you might also ask yourself how that phrase “Oh, my goodness” might have originated.
I respectfully accept your reasoning, and opinion. You did not mention this opinion when you stated your remark about the painting as if it were in error. The picture does not reveal all that took place from what the bible describes including ST.John the beloved, resting his head on Jesus chest. Beauty is in the eye of the beholder.

Peace be with you
 
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