J
jmgi1957
Guest
I struggled to even come up with a title for this topic, but here is what I am questioning. After being a Catholic my entire life, I just recently had this thought when reading Scripture, specifically Acts of the Apostles; Why is it that people were saved in the first century without believing in the Marian dogma’s? Now, I realize that the only Marian belief that the first century Christians had was that Mary was a virgin when she conceived the Son of God, and that’s it. My understanding, which may be incorrect, is that WE must give consent to all of the Marian dogma’s in order to be saved. I cannot find any official document from the CHURCH which states whether this is true or not. Does anyone have a source on this? I don’t want opinions, I want to see it in writing from the CHURCH on this matter.
This is the bottom line for me, at least; If the CHURCH says that we must believe in all the Marian dogma’s to be saved, then how is it that the first century Christians were able to be saved without these dogma’s being in existence, except for the virgin birth of course? This would sound like a double standard, wouldn’t you think?
This is the bottom line for me, at least; If the CHURCH says that we must believe in all the Marian dogma’s to be saved, then how is it that the first century Christians were able to be saved without these dogma’s being in existence, except for the virgin birth of course? This would sound like a double standard, wouldn’t you think?
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