Marian Teachings in East and West

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No it doesn’t. As you clearly pointed out, the Theotokos doesn’t need baptism as per IC. IC states that she already is full of grace from the moment she is concieved. That is different from what baptism is and how it works. The end effect may be similar, but that doesn’t mean everything else is the same.
His baptism comment was just a metaphor, though. I don’t think he was actually claiming that baptism was *literally *conferred on the Theotokos. We’re straining at gnats here.

All he was saying is that this effect of baptism (having sanctifying grace in one’s soul), which the rest of us receive when we actually are baptized, existed in the soul of the Theotokos from the first moment of her existence. That’s all.
Actually, the thirteenth century worsened matters, but I wouldn’t say the schism was set in stone even then. It was set in stone by the Council of Florence in the fifteenth century.
Perhaps by the subsequent fall of Constantinople and Turkish control of the city. But by the Council itself? It deserves far more credit than that.

I’ve also heard some say that it wasn’t really set in stone until the Union of Brest. That also seems like a reasonable point to me. But to suggest that the Council of Florence solidified the very schism its participants sought to heal is, I think, an inaccuracy and an affront to the fruits - however short-lived - of that council.
 
But to suggest that the Council of Florence solidified the very schism its participants sought to heal
That is, indeed, what I’m suggesting, no matter much people may try to deny it. The earlier reunion council, Lyons II (1274), worsened relations but didn’t set the schism in stone. Florence did.
 
That is, indeed, what I’m suggesting, no matter much people may try to deny it. The earlier reunion council, Lyons II (1274), worsened relations but didn’t set the schism in stone. Florence did.
While I haven’t yet studied Florence in detail, even the little bit of reading I have done from it leaves me scratching my head at the bizarre inaccuracy of every last bit of polemics against it that I have thus far encountered. They leave me thinking: are we reading the same council? I’ve also found St. Mark of Ephesus’ arguments against Catholic teaching to be tragically misguided. As is usual with anti-Catholic polemics, straw man arguments abound.

So please forgive my skepticism at the notion that Florence ruined prospects of reconciliation, in light of the fact that resistance to it seems to have no other leg to stand on than that shaky leg of the supposed incongruity between the Orthodox Faith and second-millennium Latin theological developments.

If I’m wrong, and there’s another leg on which this position stands, then I happily stand corrected.
 
When I said that the Council of Florence set the schism in stone, I wasn’t trying to open a debate about which side is right and which side is wrong. Not that there’s anything unreasonable about having such a debate, but I don’t really want to be involved in it today.

Presumably there are plenty of other people here for each side of said debate.
 
It is not a good analogy or metaphor or however you want to call it. Can only the Baptized receive grace? How do you explain St. John the Forerunner, whose beheading we commemorate today, who received the Holy Spirit while in the womb? He was neither immaculately concieved nor baptized.
 
It is not a good analogy or metaphor or however you want to call it. Can only the Baptized receive grace? How do you explain St. John the Forerunner, whose beheading we commemorate today, who received the Holy Spirit while in the womb? He was neither immaculately concieved nor baptized.
I honestly don’t understand the difficulty you’re having with this. The Grace we receive in Baptism, the indwelling of the Trinity and the share in Divine Life, was Mary’s from conception. John received it when Mary visited Elizabeth, according to our tradition. Obviously God can share His Life with whomever He wills, however He wills. He is not bound by the Sacraments the way we are.

Peace and God bless!
 
I honestly don’t understand the difficulty you’re having with this. The Grace we receive in Baptism, the indwelling of the Trinity and the share in Divine Life, was Mary’s from conception. John received it when Mary visited Elizabeth, according to our tradition. Obviously God can share His Life with whomever He wills, however He wills. He is not bound by the Sacraments the way we are.

Peace and God bless!
So there is no such thing as this stain of Original Sin that prevents it. Whomever God wills to receive His grace will receive it. No need for IC.

Let me review this discussion because it is you guys who are confused:
  1. I said in Eastern theology, IC is unnecessary. You say it is because Mary was filled by grace from the moment of conception.
  2. Why is it necessary for Mary to be immacualtely concieved? You said to receive Grace, which is similar to how we receive Grace when we are baptized and for all eternity after that.
  3. John the Forerunner received the Holy Spirit in the womb, neither being immaculately concieved nor baptized.
So how is the Theotokos needing IC to receive God’s graces when John didn’t?
 
When I said that the Council of Florence set the schism in stone, I wasn’t trying to open a debate about which side is right and which side is wrong. Not that there’s anything unreasonable about having such a debate, but I don’t really want to be involved in it today.

Presumably there are plenty of other people here for each side of said debate.
Fair enough. Let’s all note, though, that there is one side that essentially says that neither eastern nor western theology is “wrong.”
So there is no such thing as this stain of Original Sin that prevents it. Whomever God wills to receive His grace will receive it. No need for IC.
“Original sin” isn’t something that “prevents” our sharing in the divine life and the indwelling of the Holy Trinity. It is the privation itself of those things.

That’s what the phrase refers to. The Immaculate Conception dogma just points out that the Theotokos had these gifts every moment of her existence, unlike the rest of us.

It’s no good getting so worked up about the phrase “stain of Original Sin” itself. Everyone’s already read the numerous explanations here what it means, and thus far you haven’t disagreed with the explanations for it.
Let me review this discussion because it is you guys who are confused:
  1. I said in Eastern theology, IC is unnecessary. You say it is because Mary was filled by grace from the moment of conception.
  2. Why is it necessary for Mary to be immacualtely concieved? You said to receive Grace, which is similar to how we receive Grace when we are baptized and for all eternity after that.
  3. John the Forerunner received the Holy Spirit in the womb, neither being immaculately concieved nor baptized.
So how is the Theotokos needing IC to receive God’s graces when John didn’t?
I don’t think anyone is claiming that there was literally no other metaphysically possible way for the Incarnation to come about. The teaching describes what is, not what could not have been any other way. It is deeply fitting that the God-bearer enjoy a share in the Divine Life, the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, through her whole existence.
 
First off there is such a thing as the stain of Original Sin, it is the loss of Divine Life we were originally made to possess. East believes this as much as the West, though we use different terminology and analogies to express it. Since we believe that people lack the Divine Life, we believe in the stain of Original Sin. This is why no Eastern Orthodox took issue with the Latin approach on this matter until a hundred and fifty years ago, and Latin theology texts about Original Sin were used even by those who utterly rejected the West, like the Patriarch of Constantinople who repudiated Florence.

That said, no one is claiming here that Mary must have been immaculately conceived. She didn’t have to be, any more than she had to be assumed or crowned Queen of Heaven. It is simply fitting that she would be, and tradition holds it to be the case. St. Gregory Palamas hypothesized that her conceptual purity came about through the gradual purification of her ancestors, until she was conceived without corruption at all. However you describe it, it’s certainly fitting that the woman who bore God would be the purest possibly human aside from her Son, and that implies purity from conception to death.

So it’s fitting, and our Fathers held and taught it. Good enough for me. 🙂

Peace and God bless!
 
First off there is such a thing as the stain of Original Sin, it is the loss of Divine Life we were originally made to possess. East believes this as much as the West, though we use different terminology and analogies to express it. Since we believe that people lack the Divine Life, we believe in the stain of Original Sin. This is why no Eastern Orthodox took issue with the Latin approach on this matter until a hundred and fifty years ago, and Latin theology texts about Original Sin were used even by those who utterly rejected the West, like the Patriarch of Constantinople who repudiated Florence.

That said, no one is claiming here that Mary must have been immaculately conceived. She didn’t have to be, any more than she had to be assumed or crowned Queen of Heaven. It is simply fitting that she would be, and tradition holds it to be the case. St. Gregory Palamas hypothesized that her conceptual purity came about through the gradual purification of her ancestors, until she was conceived without corruption at all. However you describe it, it’s certainly fitting that the woman who bore God would be the purest possibly human aside from her Son, and that implies purity from conception to death.

So it’s fitting, and our Fathers held and taught it. Good enough for me. 🙂

Peace and God bless!
I’m not contesting that. I’m just saying that the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception is incompatible with Eastern theology because of how Latins understand Original Sin as opposed to the Eastern understanding of it and that is why in the East we do not see Mary needing to be excused from anything. This doesn’t change the fact that she was filled with grace from the beginning. The West believes that for her to be filled with grace she needed to be excused from having this stain.
 
I’m not contesting that. I’m just saying that the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception is incompatible with Eastern theology because of how Latins understand Original Sin as opposed to the Eastern understanding of it and that is why in the East we do not see Mary needing to be excused from anything. This doesn’t change the fact that she was filled with grace from the beginning. The West believes that for her to be filled with grace she needed to be excused from having this stain.
You don’t seem to understand what the stain is. It’s not an impediment to Grace, it’s the absence of Grace. Every definition of Original Sin demonstrates this.

If you lack Grace it is called the stain of sin in Latin theology. It is not a thing, it is the absence of a thing. We believe that people are conceived without Divine Grace, therefore we believe the are conceived with the stain of sin by definition. We just don’t use that terminology.

The stain of sin is not excused, it does not impede, it is darkness that is eliminated by light, emptiness that is filled by God. The problem seems to be that you don’t know what the Latin tradition teaches, that’s all.

Peace and God bless!
 
I’m not contesting that. I’m just saying that the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception is incompatible with Eastern theology because of how Latins understand Original Sin as opposed to the Eastern understanding of it and that is why in the East we do not see Mary needing to be excused from anything. This doesn’t change the fact that she was filled with grace from the beginning. The West believes that for her to be filled with grace she needed to be excused from having this stain.
Ineffiable Deus, expressing the dogma of the Immaculate Conception, used the phrase “originalis culpa labe”, which is a portion of the result of the sin of Adam and Eve that we are born with. Infants are baptized, although sinless, for they are lacking something brought by death, true in Latin or Eastern Catholic or Orthodox theology; They need the indwelling of the Holy Spirit, as St. John Chrysostom explains:“You have seen how numerous are the gifts of baptism. Although many men think that the only gift it confers is the remission of sins, we have counted its honors to the number of ten. It is on this account that we baptize even infants, although they are sinless, that they may be given the further gifts of sanctification, justice, filial adoption, and inheritance, that they may be brothers and members of Christ, and become dwelling places of the Spirit.”
– St. John Chrysostom, Baptismal Instruction 3:6.
Ancient Christian Writers, p. 57

books.google.com/books?id=xC9GAdUGX5sC&pg=PA581&lpg=PA581&dq=ancient+christian+baptismal+instructions&source=bl&ots=BsaK0-HWzv&sig=qzr0ByV4c89cbpTuO1pU7fxjdhI&hl=en&ei=fii_TtbJDM-1tge_75C8Bg&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=9&ved=0CFUQ6AEwCDgU#v=onepage&q=ancient%20christian%20baptismal%20instructions&f=false

Mentioned in 3:6:
1 remission of sins
2 sanctification
3 justice
4 filial adoption
5 inheritance
6 brothers of Christ
7 members of Christ
8 dwelling places for the Holy Spirit

Two more mentioned in 12:6:
9 purity of soul
10 kingdom of heaven
 
I’m just saying that the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception is incompatible with Eastern theology because …
I think the problem with the term “Eastern theology” is that it makes it sound like Eastern Catholic and Eastern Orthodox are the same.
 
The West believes that for her to be filled with grace she needed to be excused from having this stain.
The west believes that the stain of original sin is a lack of sanctifying grace. Since this has been stated multiple times now I’m starting to think there is a different issue here.

It looks like you are claiming that all human beings have sanctifying grace at conception.
 
I’m not contesting that. I’m just saying that the Dogma of the Immaculate Conception is incompatible with Eastern theology because of how Latins understand Original Sin as opposed to the Eastern understanding of it and that is why in the East we do not see Mary needing to be excused from anything. This doesn’t change the fact that she was filled with grace from the beginning. The West believes that for her to be filled with grace she needed to be excused from having this stain.
Constantine, what we’re trying to tell you is that that “stain” is the lack of sanctifying grace. By saying “she was filled with grace from the beginning,” you are assenting to the IC dogma. Your own arguments are tautologizing themselves away here!
It looks like you are claiming that all human beings have sanctifying grace at conception.
Nah, I don’t think he believes that.
 
Nah, I don’t think he believes that.
Nor do I, and as I re-read this thread, I think CTG is still reacting to certain things that were expressed as beliefs of some of the Latin Catholic faithful throughout. For example, the notion that a consequence of Original Sin is “physical” death. It is then assumed, by extension, that Mary either did not die or submitted volutarily to physical death. It appears that there may be more confusion over the meaning of “death” in this context than any fundamental disagreement on the Immaculate Conception itself
 
Seem to me have been around the world yet only briefly touching on what many consider non issues. Granted for some this may require in depth reading. 2000-years of history which also has gaps, often has one discovering new thoughts in relation to all this. And will probably continue as historic evidence is uncovered and found.

Well one fact is certain, the “East doesn’t believe what the Wast believes” are statement’s which cannot be substantiated through Eastern/Western theology, they are basicallly nothing more than passing statements which probably have a cultural foundation to them, based a theology which developed not contrary to but in compliment of the East/West, or are polemic based with a possible lack of research form either side. If the West teaching is different show it. So far we have silence to the most relevant question’s, which at some point are astonishingly “repeated” when never addressed from the on-set?

The fundemental issue “first” was the Marion Teachings in particular the IC. As we see that moves to the issue of Original Sin with an insinuation this differs in the East. A flag is raised for “some” from the West/East. For here there is no difference in Ancestrial or Original both indicate a lack of Grace at the Garden trangression of Adam/Eve and the gates as exist occurs. A seperation from Gods Grace is what we are talking east or west. If this needs further discussion than lets repeat, I can’t see where, unless a question wasn’t asked prior on this thread as we skimmed over this.

Mary was Full of Grace “before” the HS overshadowed Her. Its Biblical.

No on argues the human attributes Mary was subjected to as a result of the fall. However, Luke 1-28 clearly indicates the Angel Gabrial announced and called Mary----Hail, Full of Grace, which indicates and seperates who Mary indeed is as an individual to God the Father and the Celestial Court, an idea Lucifer highly contested and Gods Court accepted as we see so clearly see with Gabrial. Thus the continuation of the battle of the powers of Good and evil today called humanity. That battle is the history of mankind as Bl Newman suggests. I agree.

So Mary is the role model to unite Man to that which he is seperated from which is Grace. As to the Apostles, no one writes more abundantly on this than Paul especially in Romans 7:14-25. Original Sin is devoloped by Augustine through the Apostle Pauls work among other Biblical verse. Most of Pauls though.

Then Baptism comes into play, also which we have discussed at length. There is no difference in theology East/West. Yet this doesn’t resolve the need for the Sacraments of the church? Why? because man has an inclination to sin and a responsibility to preserve his Baptism which is the infised virtue of Grace. We all see this can and is lost by souls through free will. Thus the Church and Her Sacraments in the Lords wisdom.

We know from within 30-years of Christs death, Immaculate, No Spot - No Stain are recorded in the Liturgy’s of the Apostolic Church’s, Mark, James and the Acts of Andrew by Andrew. And by the second century Irenaeus and others come along with foward progress.

Origen

This Virgin Mother of the Only-begotten of God is called Mary, worthy of God, immaculate of the immaculate, one of the one (Homily 1 [A.D. 244]).

Hippolytus

He [Jesus] was the ark formed of incorruptible wood. For by this is signified that His tabernacle [Mary] was exempt from defilement and corruption (Orat. In Illud, Dominus pascit me, in Gallandi, Bibl. Patrum, II, 496 ante [A.D. 235]).

Ephraim the Syrian

You alone and your Mother are more beautiful than any others, for there is neither blemish in you nor any stains upon your Mother. Who of my children can compare in beauty to these? (Nisibene Hymns 27:8 [A. D. 361]).

By Ambrose its well dialogued.

Ambrose of Milan

Come, then, and search out your sheep, not through your servants or hired men, but do it yourself. Lift me up bodily and in the flesh, which is fallen in Adam. Lift me up not from Sarah but from Mary, a Virgin not only undefiled but a Virgin whom grace had made inviolate, free of every stain of sin (Commentary on Psalm 118:22-30 [A.D. 387]).

Then we hear the Assumption and Death of Mary, all a worn out record which in the end is a “wash”. There is “no” recorded history of Marys death…NONE. Supposedly the Apostles witnessed which then became extrodinary to say the least. No recorded actual documentation of this just exegesis. Which dates later than the IC in no-spot - no-stain. In fact we have discussed this in depth, basically we can trace the Feast back to St Athanasius work in the “Meme” of the Apostolic Greek Church 4th century. We are working od pure Faith in regards to the Dornition/Assumption, the Dogma simply leaves an avenue open in what we in truth and fact we do not know.

The I have heard essence/energies OK, I’ve read both where is the fundemental difference since Gregory of Palamas basically defined the IC without using the name IC. So how is it not compatible? The Beatific Vision becomes the only sticking point. Yet as Augustine stated it would be easier for one to drain the ocean with a seashell to define the Trinity/Essence of God.

Let alone the East venerated the Feast and believed the IC till the 15th century and Russias “aboutface” in the 17th century all of which links I also provided on this thread, with footnotes as to where and whom you can read your own accurate History.

Here is the terminolgy between Ghosty and CTG above…“If you lack Grace it is called the stain of sin in Latin theology. It is not a thing, it is the absence of a thing. We believe that people are conceived without Divine Grace, therefore we believe the are conceived with the stain of sin by definition. We just don’t use that terminology.”

Now here Mark the Evangelist [Bryant 69] says before 60 [Liturgy of St. Mark the Evangelist], “Most holy, immaculate, and blessed Mother of God, and ever Virgin Mary.” Latin: “Sanctissima, immaculata, et benedicta, Deipara et semper virgine Maria.”

[Bryant 68-69] says [Liturgy of St. James], “Most holy, most glorious, immaculate, Mother of God and ever Virgin,” and that Mary is “in every respect out of the range of sinful men.”

[Lambruschini 66-67] says in 62 [Acts of Andrew]: “And therefore, because the first man was created of immaculate earth, it was necessary that of an immaculate Virgin should be born a perfect man, that the Son of God should restore that eternal life which men had lost.” Latin: “Et propterea, quod ex immaculatâ terrâ ereatus fuerat primus homo, necesse erat ut ex immaculatâ Virgine nasceretur perfectus homo, quo Filius Dei, qui antè condiderat hominem, vitam æternam quam perdiderant hominess, repararet.”

Then we hear well the East has a different teaching of St Anne. No you just use another Canon to base this foundation on, which is accepted by the West just not taught till later years in Catholic theology, or as one seeks understanding on Mary as a topic.

Florence? Cannot be accurately discussed without Basel and Ferrara…which of course the IC was not an issue. In fact its was appproved at Basel.

Purgatory has been well discussed “The Church gives the name Purgatory to this final purification of the elect, which is entirely different from the punishment of the damned” Cf. Council of Florence (1439) There is no difference here except by the Mystics.

Here are the two links where the combined history is documanted and often overlooked… One give better footnotes and one elaborates slightly better, pretty much same context just added resources to confirm.

google.com/url?q=http://eirenikon.wordpress.com/2008/07/21/more-on-the-immaculate-conception-in-eastern-orthodoxy/&sa=U&ei=Z5XIT7TXLYrk9ASb95mqDw&ved=0CB4QFjAD&sig2=8amiGu8GVGYVyeox3bPXUQ&usg=AFQjCNH1q8zSpZSik6IenDeeeJAMvAc1hQ

google.com/url?q=http://www.ewtn.com/library/ANSWERS/imconcep.htm&sa=U&ei=v6PIT66OK4L-9QT_s_D2Dg&ved=0CBQQFjAB&sig2=Vmr7vYFuOEmhnUa3Uo1Acw&usg=AFQjCNHXTy49Id-jiH9Tx019RoIMrhbvZg

What we do have is a preponderance of evidence which indicates the IC, from a preponderance of early chuch fathers and an affirmation of the laity and the Spirtual Mystics. The two later most would like to sweep under the carpet. But we are talking the supernatural, the Church in prudence and patienece waited a very long time to define this. Unfortunate a united church didn’t accomplish this together for I do believe it is right and is correct.

I find it Ingenuine that we should make a blanket statement that “Oh these two churchs are completely different theologies” No they are basically a compilation of different “cultures” of the Apostolic Church from the conception of it. And that is how its was intended to be first with Jesus and the Jews and then the rest is Traditional/Biblical history.

Then show where and exactly how instead of leading souls astray with misguided blanket statements which serve to display your Faith as the truth only, or visa-versa. Poor act of deception to say the least which isn’t missed by anyone who reads church history for a passion or education. And to what avail? To further seperate a seperated Church? And should we then claim its Gods plan? Preposterous to say the least. One has to carefully discern what they are in fact dealing with here at times and the motivation behind it.

Here’s Florence where are these issues which cemented the schism?

google.com/url?sa=t&rct=j&q=&esrc=s&frm=1&source=web&cd=1&cad=rja&ved=0CCAQFjAA&url=http%3A%2F%2Fwww.ewtn.com%2Flibrary%2Fcouncils%2Fflorence.htm&ei=-VQ_UMiNKMa36gHW-YCgDg&usg=AFQjCNEpW0f9WNhwPfNKzhm9Ao2h7xtIEw&sig2=u88SjSFcjlyXo3skh2W-Bw

And what authority do we appeal to when none exists? Oh right the teaching authority of the CC which has “always” existed!
 
I think the problem with the term “Eastern theology” is that it makes it sound like Eastern Catholic and Eastern Orthodox are the same.
I do have to point out that Eastern Catholic and Orthodox Theology are very near similarities, not quite 100% but lets just say about 98% the same. There are very few things that differ that is why we hold to the teachings of the Church prior to the schism. Even to this day our Churches leave the Filioque in parenthesis because it is a teaching that is understood but not consistent with the teaching of the Early Church Fathers therefore, Byzantine Theology. Even to this day the Church is reconciling and trying to come to understandings between the Churches.
Another issue that plagues the discussion between the West and the East is that the East emphasizes the “Mystery of God.” Neither side can adequately explain the “Mysteries” and this is why Easterners, such as myself, follow the early Church Fathers and do not expound upon their teaching. I will argue this “Orthodox” point: There was nothing else that needed to be said, defined or described… We have very “basic concepts” that are steeped in Mystery and were developed by those who lived closest to the time of Our Lord therefore; we seek not to explain the inexplainable… “For you are God ineffable, inconceivable, invisible, incomprehensible, ever existing and yet ever the same…” (Divine Liturgy of St. John Chrysostom)
There will never be theological “agreement” (and I do mean that: not negatively but practically: God is too Great for our little minds) however; there is the ability of the Church to coexist as it does already and that is the important part… not whether you believe that Original Sin or Imperfection of Human Nature. or How /When the Theotokos was Immaculate. I can respect Latin theology however, I am not required to believe it (nor do I) nor am I bound by it and the more I, as a Byzantine, try to “reconcile” the teachings, the more confusion results. Listen, I have a bother in law who is a very devout RC priest and we have these discussion all the time… trust me… Persona Christi vs Persona Ecclesia really lights him up: lol
The ultimate issue is not how we “theologize,” the Cannon or the Rubric. It lies not in those who seek to place all of us in a melting pot and make us the same… It is an issue of mutual respect and The Church exists as proof of Her Divinity despite our humanity. If we were not “flawed” there would be full union between Catholic and Orthodox but so long as man keeps thinking that “I know better,” it isn’t going to happen.
Fr. Mitch Pacwa (sp?) explained it the best: When prisoners were in San Quenton and they misbehaved, the were placed in solitary confinement where there lived in darkness and got a plate of food. When they misbehaved in solitary, the food was placed in a blender and pureed. It was still food, but it lost its distinct and unique qualities.
Rejoice in the fact that things are similar but not the same… how dare we try to “boil God down to our feeble minds.”
MIR+
 
Certainly, originally, the Eastern Catholic Churches were meant as replacement churches for the Eastern Orthodox. Even at that time, however, they were not truly the same as the Orthodox, no matter how similar they appeared.

We should rejoice that nowadays we’re more open about the fact that Eastern Catholic ≠ Eastern Orthodox. (Try reading “Uniatism, method of union of the past, and the present search for full communion”.)
 
Certainly, originally, the Eastern Catholic Churches were meant as replacement churches for the Eastern Orthodox. Even at that time, however, they were not truly the same as the Orthodox, no matter how similar they appeared.
Acknowledging your point, its not clear to me that such was true in all cases. Clearly, that is the form of uniatism to which the Orthodox did rightfully object, but it does seem as if that charge was exaggerated in certain cases (e.g. my own Ruthenian Church). More specifically, uniatism is often described as if the Roman Catholic Church actively sought to annex Orthodox communities under this model, as if it were an active from of proselytization. History provides other reasons for the communities themselves to reunite with Rome.
 
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