Are you aware that West and others state that such acts to climax are moral for the wife after natural marital relations? Do you disagree with that position?
Since women are capable of more than one orgasm in the context of regular marital relations, your stance is ridiculous. To which climax are you referring? Her second one, third one or perhaps she is allowed only one? Ideally a couple will have no need of a female climax apart from vaginal penetration. But some couples struggle to get their cycles of arousal and climax fully synchronized. It is best when the climax occurs simultaneously. Our late Holy Father said it was an
act of virtue when spouses are attentive to their differing climactic rise and fall and seek union of it. (Particularly for males who generally have an earlier climax.)
But as to if it is moral or not: If she has not reached *her *peak it is still foreplay for
her. It isn’t “after” marital relations. It is still in the *context *of marital relations. It is after *his *ejaculation. Pray tell, what is the effect the *female *climax has on procreation? Answer: none. Unnatural acts are defined as acts that are against the *design *of the body. The body is not designed to be contraceptive. It is contraceptive acts that are unnatural. *That *is what the ECF were writing against. The sole purpose of a contraceptive act is to receive pleasure while frustrating the natural design.
Here is a basic lesson in sexual biology, Ron. In both sexes climax (or orgasm) occurs in the
brain. This is when the bonding hormone oxytocine is released. In males, physical ejaculation of semen occurs simultaneously with orgasm. They are separate events that are tied together in timing, by the *design *of the male body. The female’s orgasm has nothing whatsoever to do with our ability to reproduce. We can still have an orgasm without a uterus. A male, cannot have an ejaculation without the complementary organ, the prostate. The jury is still out if they can have an *orgasm *without a working prostate.
The whole point of Catholic teaching is that a *contraceptive *act is not a natural act!! If it is ordered towards creation *within *the natural design, it is
by definition, a natural act!
Have you written any theology on this topic?
I don’t hold a degree in theology, nor do I want one. To paraphrase the wonderful theologian, Dr. Peter Kreeft from your very own BC, “I am convinced that the best way to truly misunderstand Church teaching requires one to be an academic.”
I am more of an apologist. Have I had anything published? Not yet. I don’t have time. I am a wife to a wonderful husband and the mother to small children. But for anyone who might be interested in my writing, please pray that I will someday be called to sit down and actually get it completely written. It is always in the works. The only thing holding me back is the footnotes. I hate making footnotes and citing my sources.

I always got graded down in high school and college for bad footnotes. But I know they are completely necessary. My journal and my blog are enough for me for now. (And I got a plug from Patrick Madrid on my blog! :yyeess
…Wait, what was the point of the question?