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It is within good orthodox Catholic moral theology that when the wife experiences climax either during foreplay or during actual physical intercourse or right after the climax of the husband (which can only take place during the actual physical act of intercourse) --it is a good act. All forms part of the maritial act. (of course the actions themselves need to be good…) All of these form a “moral unity” as part of the one marital act.There are quite a few off topic comments and uncharitable remarks above, which I will ignore. I also do not reply to posts which exaggerate or distort my position in order to claim to have refuted it. Also, I’m not participating in the discussion with Lauds, because he/she openly rejects Catholic teaching on sexual ethics.
I’ve not read every post above, but I have not noticed anyone using the three fonts of morality to determine what is moral in the marital bedroom. The three fonts of morality is the teaching of Veritatis Splendor, which is also ignored in most of the above posts. Also, many posters above offer no real theological argument to support their position.
Let’s apply the three fonts of morality to the act in question, which is an unnatural sexual act, lacking sexual climax, done prior to natural marital relations.
Pope John Paul II: “Consequently, circumstances or intentions can never transform an act, intrinsically evil by virtue of its object, into an act ‘subjectively’ good or defensible as a choice.”
- intended end (purpose) is said to be to prepare for natural marital relations; this end is good. Acts used to prepare for marital relations are called foreplay; this defines the intended end in the first font of morality. However, good intention is not sufficient to cause an act to be moral, and so the mere fact that an act is being used for the purpose of foreplay does not justify the act. Also, a good intended end does not justify an intrinsically evil means.
The absence of climax does not cause an intrinsically evil sexual act to become moral because the moral object remains unchanged; the moral object is the sole determinant of the moral species of any deliberately chosen act. The result called sexual climax is a consequence in the third font, and so it does not affect the moral object in the second font.
- A sexual act is any deliberate use of the genital sexual faculty. The moral object of an unnatural sexual act is evil because all such acts lack the procreative meaning (neither are such acts truly unitive or truly marital). To be moral, each and every sexual act must be unitive, procreative, and marital. Therefore, every unnatural sexual act is intrinsically evil and always immoral.
Pope John Paul II: “The weighing of the goods and evils foreseeable as the consequence of an action is not an adequate method for determining whether the choice of that concrete kind of behavior is ‘according to its species’, or ‘in itself’, morally good or bad, licit or illicit. The foreseeable consequences are part of those circumstances of the act, which, while capable of lessening the gravity of an evil act, nonetheless cannot alter its moral species.”
- circumstances - the circumstance that the unnatural act lacks sexual climax does not change the moral object from evil to good; the circumstance that the wife cannot achieve sexual climax without the aforementioned act does not change the moral object from evil to good. No circumstance or context can justify an intrinsically evil act.
In my several posts above, I’ve stated a clear theological argument, based on the writings of Saints and the teachings of the Magisterium. I’ve written a couple of articles on this subject, containing the same theological arguments, but in greater detail.
catholicplanet.com/CCSE/index.htm
I don’t think any one else in this thread has offered a substantial theological argument to support the contrary position. So this post concludes my participation in this thread, at least for the present time.
One source I will point you to off the top of my head from the ones you posted as good sources of moral theology – so I know you will have it is the the one from Germain Grisez – go look it up in the second volume pg 642.
others may find it online here: twotlj.org/G-2-9-E.html
section 1 h iii 2nd paragraph