Marriage question

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asd72

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If two baptised non practicing Christians are married to each other in a non religious ceremony outside of a Church, is this still considered a sacramental marriage?

Would their marriage be considered non dissolvable in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
 
If two baptised non practicing Christians are married to each other in a non religious ceremony outside of a Church, is this still considered a sacramental marriage?

Would their marriage be considered non dissolvable in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
From what I’ve read and heard, if either is Catholic (whether practicing or not), the answer is no - as Catholics, they would under the Church’s authority, and would not be free to marry in a ceremony outside the Church without a Bishop’s approval. Therefore, the marriage should be convalidated (if the couple wished to be in good standing) and would be eligible for annulment.
WHAT IF I WAS MARRIED OUTSIDE THE CATHOLIC CHURCH?
Catholics are bound to marry according to the Catholic form of marriage, unless they are dispensed. So if a Catholic has married in a non-Catholic Church, or in a register office, without this dispensation being given, the marriage is invalid. Both parties to such a union can be declared free to marry, enabling each of them to enter a new marriage.
rcsouthwark.co.uk/nullity.html
 
If two baptised non practicing Christians are married to each other in a non religious ceremony outside of a Church, is this still considered a sacramental marriage?
If there are no other impediments, then yes. Secular authorities validly confer marriage (recall that marriage pre-dates the Church!). A valid marriage cannot exist between the baptized except that it be a sacrament. Only Catholics are bound to marry in a Catholic form.
Would their marriage be considered non dissolvable in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
Once it has been consummated, such a marriage would be indissoluble except by death.

tee
Neither a Canon nor Civil Lawyer
 
If two baptised non practicing Christians are married to each other in a non religious ceremony outside of a Church, is this still considered a sacramental marriage?

Would their marriage be considered non dissolvable in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
As long as neither was Catholic, yes.

There is a small exception for the Orthodox, if I’m not mistaken. If an Orthodox Christian marries outside of his/her Church, neither the Orthodox nor the Catholic Church would consider that marriage valid.
 
As long as neither was Catholic, yes.

There is a small exception for the Orthodox, if I’m not mistaken. If an Orthodox Christian marries outside of his/her Church, neither the Orthodox nor the Catholic Church would consider that marriage valid.
Conversely, if a Catholic is married in an Orthodox ceremony without permission from his or her Catholic ordinary, I understand that the marriage is valid though illicit. (And both valid and licit if permission is granted). On the other hand, If a Catholic attempts marriage in a Protestant or non-Christian / secular ceremony without permission, the marriage is invalid.
 
Yes, any valid marriage of two baptized Christians is Sacramental.

Valid, consumated Christian marriage is indissoluble.

The Catechism on Marriage:

vatican.va/archive/ccc_css/archive/catechism/p2s2c3a7.htm
This is confusing me. I was Baptist and was married, then divorced. I am in the process of getting an annulment, in which I likely would not have a case at all , if not for the fact that she refused to have children. I had no knowledge of the Catholic Church at the time. My first one is considered a valid marriage unless proven otherwise, but if I had been Catholic (knowing the rules) and had done it anyway, it would be invalid???

I married a Catholic girl outside the church, so if we divorced, our marriage would be considered invalid automatically?
 
This is confusing me. I was Baptist and was married, then divorced. I am in the process of getting an annulment, in which I likely would not have a case at all , if not for the fact that she refused to have children. I had no knowledge of the Catholic Church at the time. My first one is considered a valid marriage unless proven otherwise, but if I had been Catholic (knowing the rules) and had done it anyway, it would be invalid???

I married a Catholic girl outside the church, so if we divorced, our marriage would be considered invalid automatically?
All Catholics are required to marry in the Catholic Church OR get a dispensation from the bishop prior to marriage for the marriage to be held in any other place. So if a Catholic gets married in any other venue than a Catholic Church and does not have a dispensation, the marriage is not valid.
but if I had been Catholic (knowing the rules) and had done it anyway, it would be invalid???
Yep

As non Catholics are not held to Canon Law of the Catholic Church, the validity of their marriage is dependant on factors such as baptism, form, and so on. In the case of divorce and attempt at a second (or more) marriage, the first marriage must be looked at by a marriage tribunal to determine if it was in fact a marriage.

Your current marriage to a Catholic will have to be convalidated if you are granted a decree of nullity. If you were to divorce before convalidation the marriage would be considered invalid due to not have taken place in a Catholic Church and no dispensation granted. Until you are granted a decree of nullity it is also considered invalid as the Church considers you still married to your previous spouse.
 
This is confusing me. I was Baptist and was married, then divorced. I am in the process of getting an annulment, in which I likely would not have a case at all , if not for the fact that she refused to have children.
A valid Christian marriage requires that the partners intend to make a lifelong commitment and be open to life.
 
A valid Christian marriage requires that the partners intend to make a lifelong commitment and be open to life.
My case would likely go nowhere if not for her refusal of a family. My understanding is that is a legitimate reason to have it ruled invalid.
I understand that part of the process. I am far enough along in the process that I have just submitted my case.

The part that doesn’t add up to me is that as one who was ignorant of Catholic rules, I’m being held to a higher standard than a person born Catholic who should know better. Can someone explain why it is done that way? I’m not arguing the point, I just can’t get my hands around the concept.
 
The part that doesn’t add up to me is that as one who was ignorant of Catholic rules, I’m being held to a higher standard than a person born Catholic who should know better. Can someone explain why it is done that way?
Actually, you’re both being held to the same high standard - a valid marriage is one in which both spouses consent, are free from impediment, and follow any applicable form for the ceremony. However, you’re comparing apples and oranges here.

In the case of the Catholic example you give, we’re talking about someone who didn’t even attempt a valid marriage. (Therefore, the marriage is, unsurprisingly, invalid.)

In your case, we’re talking about someone who did attempt valid marriage, but later it became clear that it may not have been sacramental because of your spouse’s lack of consent.

In the first, there’s no attempt; in the second, there’s an attempt, but it appears to be an invalid attempt. Think of it this way: suppose you see two guys getting pulled over at a traffic check point. One guy doesn’t have a valid license; the other guy has a license and registration, but has been drinking. The first guy gets pulled out of his car and written up immediately; the second guy has to go through a process (field sobriety check, breathalizer, etc). Would you look at them and say, “hey! the second guy is being held to a higher standard!!!”…? Of course not: it’s obvious at a glance that the first guy didn’t even attempt to drive legally, so reaching that conclusion doesn’t take long. The second guy, however, seems (on the face of it) to be driving legally, so it takes more effort to determine whether he’s actually driving legally or not. (It’s not a precise example, but it comes close…)

You seem to be equating ‘ease of obtaining a nullity’ with ‘reason for obtaining a nullity.’ They aren’t the same thing.
 
The part that doesn’t add up to me is that as one who was ignorant of Catholic rules, I’m being held to a higher standard than a person born Catholic who should know better. Can someone explain why it is done that way? I’m not arguing the point, I just can’t get my hands around the concept.
You aren’t being held to a higher standard.

Non Catholic Churches have no requirement of form, indeed most do not even recongize marriage as a sacrament. And, lacking holy orders, the officiant at a non catholic wedding is acting as the civil witness, be he/she affiliated with a non catholic denomination or simply a JP or county clerk, not the witness of the church.

The Orthodox, who do have valid holy orders and valid apostolic authority to impose form on their own members, do have requirements for valid marriage and the Catholic Church recognizes that form.

It’s not that you were ignorant of the Catholic requirement of form, but rather that it did not apply to you.
 
As non Catholics are not held to Canon Law of the Catholic Church, the validity of their marriage is dependant on factors such as baptism, form, and so on.
:nope:

All other things being equal, baptismal status does not factor into the validity of marriage. The unbaptized married validly long before the Church (or baptism) existed, and continue to do so to this day.

tee
Still Not Any Kind of Lawyer
 
If two baptised non practicing Christians are married to each other in a non religious ceremony outside of a Church, is this still considered a sacramental marriage?

Would their marriage be considered non dissolvable in the eyes of the Catholic Church?
If either is Catholic then it could only be valid if in extraordinary circumstances of no priest for a month. If neither is Catholic but is Christian it is based on the acceptable form for that particular Church or ecclesial community. If non religious ceremony is acceptable to that particular Church or ecclesial community then it would meet the form.

It is then presumed a valid sacrament if they are both Christian and hold to the marriage as lifelong, exclusive, and granting conjugal right, and with no impediments.
 
If either is Catholic then it could only be valid if in extraordinary circumstances of no priest for a month. If neither is Catholic but is Christian it is based on the acceptable form for that particular Church or ecclesial community. If non religious ceremony is acceptable to that particular Church or ecclesial community then it would meet the form.

It is then presumed a valid sacrament if they are both Christian and hold to the marriage as lifelong, exclusive, and granting conjugal right, and with no impediments.
What is one party is Christian (non-Catholic) and the other is unbaptized but they meed all of the other commitments you mention?

Presumably if the first party is a Catholic rather than a non-Catholic Christian the same Catholic rules would apply and it would need to be convalidated.
 
What is one party is Christian (non-Catholic) and the other is unbaptized but they meed all of the other commitments you mention?
In that case, it would be a valid marriage, but it would not be a Sacrament. In order to be a Sacrament, both parties must be baptized.
Presumably if the first party is a Catholic rather than a non-Catholic Christian the same Catholic rules would apply and it would need to be convalidated.
First, let’s see if I have the question correct:

The situation is that a priest is unavailable for more than a month.

A Catholic and an unbaptized person want to marry.

(Nothing else applies, such as previous marriages, etc. etc.)

Is that the situation?

If I have the question correct, then it would not be a situation requiring a convalidation. The ceremony where the couple exchanges consent in front of witnesses (but not a priest or deacon) is itself the only necessary ceremony.

It would not be a Sacrament by virtue of the fact that one party is unbaptized; however it would be a valid and licit marriage.
 
In that case, it would be a valid marriage, but it would not be a Sacrament. In order to be a Sacrament, both parties must be baptized.

First, let’s see if I have the question correct:

The situation is that a priest is unavailable for more than a month.

A Catholic and an unbaptized person want to marry.

(Nothing else applies, such as previous marriages, etc. etc.)

Is that the situation?

If I have the question correct, then it would not be a situation requiring a convalidation. The ceremony where the couple exchanges consent in front of witnesses (but not a priest or deacon) is itself the only necessary ceremony.

It would not be a Sacrament by virtue of the fact that one party is unbaptized; however it would be a valid and licit marriage.
Apologies for the lack of clarity on the latter part. Your reading of my intent was correct. And thank you for the answers. But they raise another question for me. In either case, where a licit marriage existed for a Christian and Unbaptized person, or for a Catholic and unbaptized person in both of my examples as you understood them… is there a way for them to raise that licit marriage to a sacrament? I presume the first step would obviously be for the unbaptized party to be baptized Catholic in both cases, and the non-Catholic Christian to convert to Catholicism in the first example? But what would be the next step if any?
 
Apologies for the lack of clarity on the latter part. Your reading of my intent was correct. And thank you for the answers. But they raise another question for me. In either case, where a licit marriage existed for a Christian and Unbaptized person, or for a Catholic and unbaptized person in both of my examples as you understood them… is there a way for them to raise that licit marriage to a sacrament? I presume the first step would obviously be for the unbaptized party to be baptized Catholic in both cases, and the non-Catholic Christian to convert to Catholicism in the first example? But what would be the next step if any?
The valid Baptism of the unbaptized person is all that is required to make the valid marriage a sacramental one. It is not necessary that the person be baptized into the Catholic Church.

FYI, valid and licit are not interchangeable. If a priest witnesses the marriage of a Catholic and a baptized non-Catholic without the Bishop’s permission the marriage is valid but illicit. If he witnesses the marriage of a Catholic and an unbaptized person without the Bishop’s dispensation the marriage is invalid.
 
Apologies for the lack of clarity on the latter part. Your reading of my intent was correct. And thank you for the answers. But they raise another question for me. In either case, where a licit marriage existed for a Christian and Unbaptized person, or for a Catholic and unbaptized person in both of my examples as you understood them… is there a way for them to raise that licit marriage to a sacrament? I presume the first step would obviously be for the unbaptized party to be baptized Catholic in both cases, and the non-Catholic Christian to convert to Catholicism in the first example? But what would be the next step if any?
Once the unbaptized party is baptized, the marriage becomes a Sacrament. Nothing else is needed.

It doesn’t matter if the previously-baptized party is Catholic or non-Catholic. It works the same either way. Once it is a situation of a valid marriage between two baptized persons, then it is a Sacrament.
 
Once the unbaptized party is baptized, the marriage becomes a Sacrament. Nothing else is needed.
Would you please explain? I was not aware that any Sacrament could be retroactive. I thought the subject/minister/matter/intent/form of a Sacrament had to be valid at the time. In the case of matrimony (in the Latin understanding), TWO of these conditions (subject and minister) were not valid at the time.

If a person who was not Baptized (but was assumed to be so at the time) was ordained to the priesthood, and the fact of the non-Baptism were to become known later, would simple but subsequent Baptism automatically and retroactively validate the Ordination?

If a baptism were performed with invalid substance (such as, for example, milk or wine or oil instead of water), could the Baptism be “remediated” in any way? Is there any way that this baptism could be considered valid without doing it all over again (with valid substance)?
 
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