In your book apparently. Look at the encyclical.
It is not “my” book. It’s theology.
She would not have been able to join or start an Order if she were not a widower - as I have already plainly said in black and white - or was still sharing conjugal relations with her husband. It is quite clear that if one is a widower then this detracts from the married state because otherwise people would not be able to remarry when widowed in the RCC. *
*You do not stay with a position long enough to articulate a progression of thought. Your statement was about mystical gifts as they relate to a life of virginity or continence – and here I have to supply the language for you – and that relationship to the advanced states of the mystical life touching upon and including the transforming union. This is aside from the charism of founding an Order, which is now being conflated with the life of Bridget. Bridget’s mystical life was highly present when she was married and when she was in the midst of birthing her eight children. **
Was she widowed? And there are different gifts given to many. Lots of laity have gifts and are given mystical insight. The point which you seem intent on refuting is what is written in the encyclical, in that the virginal state allows a far deeper union. And it does by its very expression. People can still be holy and receive visions. Most Christian do. But I am talking about the St. Faustinas of this world and the St. Augustines and the St. Francis’.
Your use of language is so imprecise as to be unhelpful to me in what thought you are attempting to convey. I will let you compare & contrast the infused intellectual gifts of Augustine, a non virgin & father of an out of wedlock child, to Aquinas, a virgin. Or the degree of transforming union between Bridget, who was mother of 8 children, and Catherine of Siena, a virgin. Both experienced the mystical grace of being brides of Christ. You’re not asking me, as a theologian, a question – you have posited an argument. As with one of my students…you’ve made the argument, please explain your thesis.
For example, when St. Rita was married she was not allowed to enter a convent but she was still saintly or holy and in literal communication with our Creator, but it wasn’t until after her marriage that she was able to enter into a convent (with some difficulty for the fact that she’d been married) and received the Stigmata.
Your comment, again, makes no sense. Rita, of course, did not live in a cloistered convent because she was a married woman & a mother. She had a different vocation. After the death of her husband & sons, she was called to another vocation. She did not receive the stigmata but the wounding with a thorn projected from the crown of thorns. Both in marriage & Religious Life, she was the recipient of the mystical state – not transient mystical graces. There is a theological distinction.
This is still not the norm. It might have been that she turned down religious life and that this was her calling. I have no issue with the fact that people can be holy and married, and I have no problem understanding that holy men and women can come from the eastern church either. But I do recognise that the norm is that holiness is more naturally attained when living in the religious life.
This has been clarified by the conciliar document Lumen Gentium, Chapter 5: The Universal Call to Holiness.
The encyclical says this - Pope Paul VI quoted St. Paul - or it may have been another papal document - who I also quoted earlier, where he says that it is more difficult for a person to be as fully trained on the mind of the Creator when he has a wife to think about too. Sure, both spouses can be devout, or one of them can be exceptionally holy to attain such a union with the Creator, but there will still be distractions. A life of celibacy allows for a greater living out of the love one has for the Creator if gifted with extra grace. if this were not the case, then the history of religious Orders would be one filled with married people, but they are not. Are they.
Blessed Anna Maria Taigi was married throughout the period of her mystical union with the Trinity which in no way impeded her conjugal life. After her death, her husband became a priest.
Why do think it is that holy Orders consist of chastity. You are taking this dialogue into the realms of the ridiculous if you cannot see my points.
*In what sense do you contend that “holy Orders consist of chastity”? If, philosophically, you mean consist at the level of what constitutes their substance and you are referring to celibacy or perfect continence, I don’t understand the statement that “holy Orders consists of chastity,” if you are talking about the sacrament. If you’re talking of an institute of consecrated life, that’s different…but you have to specify what concept you are talking about.
Chastity is intrinsic to Religious Life by the vow of chastity with the vows of poverty and obedience (for Religious Orders that are post monastic; monastic vows are obedience, stability & conversion of manners. The latter vow subsumes chastity) This is because Religious Life is the living of the Evangelical Counsels. That is different from the sacred ministry, as such. East and West agree on this.
Holy Orders, if you are expressing the sacrament, have a solemn promise of celibacy in the West – but permanent deacons who are married are exempt, married Latin Rite priests are exempt and the married clergy of the Eastern Churches are exempt.
It is not me who is being absurd. You’re loosely using language to address concepts that require much more precision when attempting to discuss them.
*