B
Bon_Croix
Guest
I have heard that Joseph prayed a Jewish prayer as a youngster. In the prayer, was some type of intention to remain virgin. He was not the author of the prayer.
How did the matter of virginity of Mary come to be a publically know and taught matter?The Church came to the decision that it was finally time to declare as dogma what had been taught by the whole Church consistently over time,
I would recommend a few things to you:How did the matter of virginity of Mary come to be a publically know and taught matter?
Running on fumes at the moment. Google is your friend…Do I take it a more direct answer would be too lengthy?
Well, that’s why she couldn’t remain in the Temple. That doesn’t explain why her not being able to remain in the Temple would create a need for her to marry.Actually, that wasn’t quite the implication. In the document, the priests are noting that a girl – who is ‘coming of age’ as a woman – cannot stay in the temple. It wasn’t a question of “providing for herself”, it was a question of ritual purity and keeping the temple free from ritual impurity.![]()
That’s utterly ridiculous. Genesis says the woman’s labor pains would increase. It doesn’t say that original sin is the root of all labor pain.Because it implies that Jesus’ birth wasn’t immaculate and pure and painless. (However, the document asserts that the midwife did nothing and left right after the birth. Aquinas sees the mere presence of a midwife as an admission that the birth included normal child-bearing pain.)
I like that better since it makes their struggles relevant to the reality of marriage as an experience that is universalFor some reason, I’m interested in whether Mary and Joseph loved each other romantically.
Do you have an example?
Right: the Protoevangelium is answering the question “why couldn’t Mary stay in the temple?” and the answer – in the culture of the day – was “ritual purity of the temple.” Of course, the culture of the day also was such that a woman could not provide for herself or her family if she was unmarried or widowed. Thus, the need for a husband / protector is an obvious implication of the situation once she leaves the temple.Well, that’s why she couldn’t remain in the Temple. That doesn’t explain why her not being able to remain in the Temple would create a need for her to marry.
You’re barking up the wrong tree, I’m afraid. I agree with your take on the text in Genesis (although there are Catholics who fail to see the word “increase” there and presume it’s saying that labor pains began). However, that’s not what’s in play here: it’s the question of whether the perpetual virginity of Mary implies a miraculous birth that does not have the usual effects of childbirth on a woman’s body. That’s what Aquinas is concerned about in his discussion of the topic.That’s utterly ridiculous. Genesis says the woman’s labor pains would increase. It doesn’t say that original sin is the root of all labor pain.
Psst… Mary wasn’t “pregnant before marriage.” They were married (and the stage of the marriage was the ‘betrothal’, which simply meant that she and Joseph hadn’t yet begun to live under the same roof). If you read Matthew, Joseph is considering divorce, not breaking an engagement.She did experience hardship like being pregnant before marriage
Yep. Sometimes – maybe because the notion of ‘infallibility’ is part of the context surrounding some of the teachings of the Church – Catholics get the mistaken notion that everything the Church says is “infallible.” It isn’t. Rather, the Church is always authoritative in its teachings (and some teachings, in addition, are also infallible). Liturgical matters are authoritatively declared by the Church, but infallibility doesn’t attach to them. (That’s kind of the reason that the Assumption was explicitly declared a dogma of the Church: it was already believed by Catholics, and was part of our liturgical calendar, but it hadn’t been declared infallibly.)I do believe in the infallibility of the church. I saw the feast day for the presentation so I thought it was infallible too.
The Gospels don’t tell us that answer. The Protoevangelium of James (which, of course, is not a book of Scripture, but has been read by Christians for ages, and which has not been censured by the Church) explains it as a relationship that was first more a ‘guardianship’ that it implicitly infers became a marriage, once Mary became pregnant.Which then made me ask why marriage then.
That’s the implication that the Church has always taught: the relationship between Mary and Joseph was not sexual.Of course it makes sense for her to have male guardianship but then it would mean that Joseph must be aware of that and hence it was probably a platonic relationship.