A
amicatholic2000
Guest
I believe Mary and Joseph’s marriage was never consummated, since I believe that Mary remains a Virgin to this day (and always will be). Ordinarily, however, in order for a Sacramental marriage to be valid, the man and woman must intend at the time of marriage to consummate their marriage and be open to procreation.
What does all this mean?
Was Mary and Joseph’s marriage sacramental?
Did Mary and Joseph intend to never consummate their marriage when they married? If so, was their marriage valid for reasons that do not apply to anyone else’s marriage? What are those reasons?
Had Mary made any kind of commitment to always remain a Virgin before her marriage to Joseph? If so, was this commitment made before her betrothal to Joseph or, after her betrothal, at the time of the Annunciation or later? If she did not commit to always remaining a Virgin before marrying Joseph, did she ever do so after marrying Joseph?
Did Mary and Joseph intend to consummate their marriage at some point after Jesus’ birth, but did Joseph die before this could occur?
What does all this mean?
Was Mary and Joseph’s marriage sacramental?
Did Mary and Joseph intend to never consummate their marriage when they married? If so, was their marriage valid for reasons that do not apply to anyone else’s marriage? What are those reasons?
Had Mary made any kind of commitment to always remain a Virgin before her marriage to Joseph? If so, was this commitment made before her betrothal to Joseph or, after her betrothal, at the time of the Annunciation or later? If she did not commit to always remaining a Virgin before marrying Joseph, did she ever do so after marrying Joseph?
Did Mary and Joseph intend to consummate their marriage at some point after Jesus’ birth, but did Joseph die before this could occur?