Mary and sinlessness

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Im just asking how we come to a conclusion about a very specific point in time (conception) about her sinlessness from a very vague statement that was made by an angel.
“We” didn’t do that. No one did that. The Church does not use the Bible as a proof text for what it teaches. Rather, the Bible is a witness to the Church and her teachings. Again, the distinction is an important one to grasp.
So a pope defined it as dogma in the 1800s. How did he come to that conclusion
Through prayer, research, theologians (name removed by moderator)ut, discernment of all available information from many sources, including the whole of the Bible, not just one passage in Luke’s Gospel. You don’t think he just decided one day that it would neat if we believed Mary was immaculately conceived? It was debated for centuries by theologians, though believed generally by the faithful and had the general approbation of the Church since believing it did not contradict Church teaching. That’s how.
and why were previous popes or even St Peter, never informed about this? I’d think the ones closest to Jesus would have had more insight than a pope in the 1800s.
We cannot know all of what St. Peter knew. We only know some of what St. Peter and the other Apostles gave us by means of their writings. Not everything we know or that was taught was given to us through the NT, though. It was also given us through oral teaching, and the witness of the Church Fathers, who were quite close to the Apostles, some of whom had sat at their feet as disciples.
This is just my logic speaking, I am.not saying.I disbelieve but I cant be dishonest with myself, and so I have questions.
It’s fine to be honest with oneself, but if we don’t have all the facts we can very easily mislead ourselves, as well. If you trust in the authority of the Church to decide matters of faith and morals, then you accept them, and then research what you don’t understand if it means so much to you. In doing so I have found the Church’s teachings not only reasonable, but more, spiritually edifying, as well. 🙂
 
So a pope defined it as dogma in the 1800s. How did he come to that conclusion and why were previous popes or even St Peter, never informed about this? I’d think the ones closest to Jesus would have had more insight than a pope in the 1800s. This is just my logic speaking, I am.not saying.I disbelieve but I cant be dishonest with myself, and so I have questions.
Let’s use your own logic on another doctrine. You say, “I’d think the ones closest to Jesus would have had more insight than a pope in the 1800s.” That sounds reasonable. Would you then think that the ones closest to Jesus would have had more insight than a council of bishops in the fifth century? A little closer in time but still over 400 years after the Apostles. But the Apostles did not give us the doctrine on the Trinity. But those bishops in the fifth century did. And every Trinitarian christian, Catholic or otherwise, accepts that doctrine defined by those bishops.
 
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