M
Mickey
Guest
Oh, but it does say so in the Bible. When it is declared that Mary is “full of grace”. There’s no room for sin! Here is an explanation about the usage of “full of grace” that was posted some time ago by axion:How do you know that it was God’s will? Have you read God’s mind? We don’t know it is God’s will. We don’t know that Mary was without sin. We do know that she probably died a normal death. because there isn’t proof of her ascension in the Bible(unlike Enoch or Elijah). She couldn’t have died without original sin.
You are correct with God nothing is impossible. However, you then must prove that God willed for Mary to be without sin. You can’t do that because it doesn’t say it in the Bible.
The idea of Mary being without sin is the creation of the Catholic Church. and it is not biblically supported.
I will grant that we can’t know that she was with sin. because it doesn’t say that she was.
If I am wrong I won’t be guilty of anything but rejecting something that the Bible doesn’t talk about.
If you are wrong you may be guilty of elevating Mary to a higher level then you should.
It is better to reject something that is not in the Bible then it is to accept it and elevate something where only God should be.
The word used of Mary in Luke 1 is Kecharitomene. It is a complex participle. The root of this word is Charis, meaning Grace. The prefix **Ke **means that the grace was already perfectly present before the angel appeared. The suffix **mene **means that Mary was the recipient of this grace.
In other words Kecharitomene shows that Mary was a **recipient **of a fullness of Grace. The grace was **given **to her. The perfect tense indicates that this filling with grace is a continuous event that was ongoing before the angel appeared.
The translations which state “highly favoured” instead of “full of grace”, are largely motivated by a doctrinal desire to downgrade Mary. The first version to use this translation was the King James Version, where the translators noted that “highly favoured” was used instead of “full of Grace” in order to show that Mary was not a source of grace. (Tyndale’s version on which the KJV was largely based, used full of Grace).