Mary did not have sin

  • Thread starter Thread starter Bill_Pick
  • Start date Start date
Status
Not open for further replies.
So what? It means you are NOT following the Bible. That’s the gist of it. And since you’re not following the Bible, you are not following what the Bible says not to ADD NOR TAKE AWAY from it. And if you bother to read the Bible on what happens to those who ADDs to it, you will find the word “CURSED”. And I’m not saying this of my own view.

What you are saying is blasphemous. How can God even have a mother??? God is the Alpha & the Omega, the BEGINNING and the END. The Bible says the birth of Jesus was the work of the Holy Spirit. Mary did nothing to cause His conception.

Matthew 1:20 But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.

I don’t know if you have a father, but I certainly have one. You’ve planted a flawed reply full of loopholes that does not even amount to an answer. How could Jesus have original sin (which is passed from human parents onto their children) when the conception of Jesus is through the Holy Spirit ??? Can you be born without your earthly father? You can try asking your earthly parents this question and see if you receive a slap or a treat to McDonalds.

Matthew 1:18This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit

Jesus had NO earthly father and was conceived through the Holy Ghost. As such He does not inherit ANY inherent sin from humanity. There is therefore NO NEED to even assume that Mary was sinless. And the fact remains that she isn’t.
.
no my friend. what YOU are saying is blasphemous. you are denying the trinity. YOU are denying the deity of Christ. YOU are guilty of accepting a very old heresy. so you may want to read YOUR bible more carefully, before you start throwing accusations which are biblically, and traditionally baseless. P.S. round 5:tanning:
 
no my friend. what YOU are saying is blasphemous. you are denying the trinity. YOU are denying the deity of Christ. YOU are guilty of accepting a very old heresy. so you may want to read YOUR bible more carefully, before you start throwing accusations which are biblically, and traditionally baseless. P.S. round 5:tanning:
I was asking God how to reply you and He gave me this verse:

Matthew 7:6 "Do not give dogs what is sacred; do not throw your pearls to pigs. If you do, they may trample them under their feet, and then turn and tear you to pieces.

PS. Feel free to ask the moderator to ban me if you feel like crying again after losing. It seems to be your only recourse everytime you show yourself in a bad light. Get them to help you escape from your shame.
 
I was asking God how to reply you and He gave me this verse:

Matthew 7:6 "Do not give dogs what is sacred; do not throw your pearls to pigs. If you do, they may trample them under their feet, and then turn and tear you to pieces.

Looks like He doesn’t want me to talk to you.
i would suggest you read John 1 mosacked. its a good place to start, when studying the deity of Christ. and yes, we are still praying for you. :signofcross:
 
by the way. i have never asked the moderator to ban you. ive never even turned in anyones post. i really enjoy this. fundamentalist like you make my day. if not, then i would simply ignore you. and i will leave it up to the others as to who has lost or won…you have yet to come up with a coherent argument. all you seem to be able to do is come at Catholics and others with hate. does that spirit come from God?
 
i see. speecheless already. 😃 ah well. whenever your ready. lets hear your latest mean spirited remarks. 😉
God tells me this:

Proverbs 23:9 Do not speak to a fool, for he will scorn the wisdom of your words.

Amen.
 
God tells me this:

Proverbs 23:9 Do not speak to a fool, for he will scorn the wisdom of your words.

Amen.
please continue to throw your venomous words my way. i prefer it to my Catholic brothers/sisters being attacked. you dont hurt my feelings one bit. i actually find you an interesting individual. i can take anything you can dish out, and then some. ive dealt with worse. 🙂 and i would love to hear you speak words of wisdom. but that will only happen when you open your heart to the love of Christ. i really dont know who you are listening to. but if i were you, i would really search my heart, and test what im being told. my prayers for you. :gopray2:
 
O Mary conceived without sin, pray for us who have recourse to thee. :byzsoc:
 
PS. Feel free to ask the moderator to ban me if you feel like crying again after losing. It seems to be your only recourse everytime you show yourself in a bad light. Get them to help you escape from your shame.
Oh…in case you are wondering, I was the one that reported you.

Since Catholics sort of lump us both as “Protestants”, you by extension make me look bad. I don’t appreciate being made to look bad.

You really need to take an anger management course there brother.
 
It reinforces it because Christ’s flesh is the flesh of Mary. IOW, the Incarnation was pure and Christ was pure–the pure sacrifice, the pure high priest. Satan could never throw Jesus’ mother in his face, could he? Not when she was conceived without the stain of original sin. You just know that if Satan could have he would have made an issue of it. And even today many people claim that Jesus’ being just as human as the rest of us means that he wasn’t fully divine. Indeed, the pronouncement of Mary, Mother of God was to combat this very ancient heresy. **Her absolute purity ensures Christ’s absolute purity, as well. The IC is a very ancient concept that not all theologians accepted/argued for, but theologians are speculators not makers of doctrine. When else would God have granted her this grace than at her conception? Note that the Angel Gabriel called Mary “full of grace” as a title, instead of her given name. Surely it was, therefore, something she had had since conception. ** That’s reasonable enough. 🙂
It may be reason enough to believe it, and as I said, I’m more inclined to believe it than not, but it seems unnecessary to declare it as doctrine.
Jon
 
It may be reason enough to believe it, and as I said, I’m more inclined to believe it than not, but it seems unnecessary to declare it as doctrine.
Jon
Yes, reasonable it not enough reason to believe in and of itself. 🙂 Not to over use the word, but the reason it is a doctrine/dogma is because it is a universal truth. That which is true ought to be believed because it leads us to believe all that is true. For example, it deepens our belief in the divinity of Christ. Witness the discussion here in this very thread on the personhood of Christ. The IC reinforces the belief that Christ was fully God and fully man. If it does that, it’s a universal truth that deserves to be a doctrine/dogma.
 
It seems to me that if this is being put forth as dogma that must be believed, that the burden of proof rests on those putting this forth as dogma as to where God has definitely revealed this as truth.

Until then, I will continue to believe that this is a nice little story, but in the end probably another Christian urban legend.
As to burden of proof, I would submit to you, in all humility, that the Church founded by Christ himself does not have to prove to denominations founded in the 19th century that it has the authority to declare doctrines dogma. I was once in the Assemblies of God and deeply appreciate all I learned and experienced there. I once thought the Catholic Church rather high-handed for declaring some things definitely true. But, after I learned a bit more history and looked into Catholic teaching for myself I discovered I was wrong. It was a hard process of self-discovery as well as doctrinal discovery. Anyway, I came to trust the Church because it was founded by Christ. All matters of faith and morals boil down to authority, what it is and who has it. 🙂
 
As to burden of proof, I would submit to you, in all humility, that the Church founded by Christ himself does not have to prove to denominations founded in the 19th century that it has the authority to declare doctrines dogma. I was once in the Assemblies of God and deeply appreciate all I learned and experienced there. I once thought the Catholic Church rather high-handed for declaring some things definitely true. But, after I learned a bit more history and looked into Catholic teaching for myself I discovered I was wrong. It was a hard process of self-discovery as well as doctrinal discovery. Anyway, I came to trust the Church because it was founded by Christ. All matters of faith and morals boil down to authority, what it is and who has it. 🙂
I agree that if it is true that:
(1) The organization that today is known as the Catholic organization is exclusively the church of Jesus Christ

and

(2) That there are graces/benefits that God provides to this organization that He will not provide to all other Christian organizations

Then…

It is reasonable to believe that what this organization claims its authority is (the pope is incapable of being incorrect when it speaks on faith and morals) is true. And if you assume that is true, then you must assume that Mary did not have sin is true,

So therefore there are two paths to convince me this is a true statement and not a Christian urban legend:
(1) Convince me of the above
(2) Convince me that God has revealed to mankind this is true. The one source that I know I can trust in this regards is the Bible.
 
So what? It means you are NOT following the Bible. That’s the gist of it. And since you’re not following the Bible, you are not following what the Bible says not to ADD NOR TAKE AWAY from it. And if you bother to read the Bible on what happens to those who ADDs to it, you will find the word “CURSED”. And I’m not saying this of my own view.
I’m following the Church that gave you your Bible, kind of like being able to talk to the founding fathers who gave us our Constitution. I’ve neither added nor taken anything away from the Bible.
What you are saying is blasphemous. How can God even have a mother??? God is the Alpha & the Omega, the BEGINNING and the END. The Bible says the birth of Jesus was the work of the Holy Spirit. Mary did nothing to cause His conception.
Do you believe Jesus was God? Was Mary his mother? As I have already told you, you cannot seperate the two natures of Jesus (human and divine) from his PERSON. Mary gave birth to a PERSON, Jesus Christ, who is God, therefore she is the mother of God. As I have also already told you, this title was given to Mary to refute the very heresy that you are promoting. It was meant to define the Person of Christ. She did not give birth to a nature (human) but a Person (human and divine). Also, Mary did have something to do with it. She said YES. She could have refused.
Matthew 1:20 But after he had considered this, an angel of the Lord appeared to him in a dream and said, "Joseph son of David, do not be afraid to take Mary home as your wife, because what is conceived in her is from the Holy Spirit.
Yes. The Church has never said otherwise.
I don’t know if you have a father, but I certainly have one. You’ve planted a flawed reply full of loopholes that does not even amount to an answer. How could Jesus have original sin (which is passed from human parents onto their children) when the conception of Jesus is through the Holy Spirit ??? Can you be born without your earthly father? You can try asking your earthly parents this question and see if you receive a slap or a treat to McDonalds.
Well, one thing is for sure, I do have a father, since you were wondering. I also had a mother and it is she that gave birth to me. Since I have heard the talk on the birds and the bees I think I get it. You seem to be ignoring the fact that while Jesus was conceived by the Holy Spirit his mother was human. Even you admit that original sin is passed on by human parents to ther children. If his human mother had original sin then it follows that it would have been passed on to him, regardless of who his Father was.
Matthew 1:18This is how the birth of Jesus Christ came about: His mother Mary was pledged to be married to Joseph, but before they came together, she was found to be with child through the Holy Spirit

Jesus had NO earthly father and was conceived through the Holy Ghost. As such He does not inherit ANY inherent sin from humanity. There is therefore NO NEED to even assume that Mary was sinless. And the fact remains that she isn’t.
.
Yes, you already said that. Why do you keep ignoring the fact that Jesus had a human mother. Did you only inherit charactaristics from your father? If you pour fresh milk into a carton of spoiled milk what do you get? Spoiled milk. In order for Jesus to be pure, both of his parents had to be pure.

You seem to be a very angry person. I will pray for you.

God bless.
 
I agree that if it is true that:
(1) The organization that today is known as the Catholic organization is exclusively the church of Jesus Christ

and

(2) That there are graces/benefits that God provides to this organization that He will not provide to all other Christian organizations

Then…

It is reasonable to believe that what this organization claims its authority is (the pope is incapable of being incorrect when it speaks on faith and morals) is true. And if you assume that is true, then you must assume that Mary did not have sin is true,

So therefore there are two paths to convince me this is a true statement and not a Christian urban legend:
(1) Convince me of the above
(2) Convince me that God has revealed to mankind this is true. The one source that I know I can trust in this regards is the Bible.
Actually, you can only trust the Bible because the Catholic Church compiled it and through its members wrote the NT. We have to understand that the Church existed before the NT. Indeed, the NT is the witness to the authority of the Church, but not the proof of it’s authority. The Church’s authority came/comes from Christ not the NT. Jesus gave authority to the Apostles to decide matters of faith and morals not to any writings. Now that is biblically true. The idea that the Bible is the final authority is not biblically true. Indeed, the writings of the NT are only an off-shoot of the ministry of the Apostles and other early Christians, such as Mark and Luke, who were subject to Peter and Paul, who were Apostles. So, the whole question of authority rests on these facts. 🙂
 
Actually, you can only trust the Bible because the Catholic Church compiled it and through its members wrote the NT. We have to understand that the Church existed before the NT. Indeed, the NT is the witness to the authority of the Church, but not the proof of it’s authority. The Church’s authority came/comes from Christ not the NT. Jesus gave authority to the Apostles to decide matters of faith and morals not to any writings. Now that is biblically true. The idea that the Bible is the final authority is not biblically true. Indeed, the writings of the NT are only an off-shoot of the ministry of the Apostles and other early Christians, such as Mark and Luke, who were subject to Peter and Paul, who were Apostles. So, the whole question of authority rests on these facts. 🙂
So much I could respond to…so little time and energy…so I will be very selective…
Actually, you can only trust the Bible because the Catholic Church compiled it and through its members wrote the NT.
This of course assumes that the organization that calls itself Catholic is the sole legitimate heir of the apostolic church that calls itself Catholic. That is a topic of itself.

And it really begs the question on how much credit is appropriate to give an organization concerning the positive activities of its members…while at the same time you have the other question on how much blame should the the organization receive concerning the negative activities of its members.

And it really begs the question on how much of the process that produced what we know as the Bible was God, how much was man, and how much was organization.

You see the statement
"Persons ‘A’ who are a part of organization ‘B’ are partially responsible for the creation of entity ‘C’

is not the same as statement

"Organization ‘B’ and members of organization ‘B’ are responsible for the creation of entity ‘C’ "

And it calls into question on whether the following is legitimate logic anyway: If entity ‘A’ is partially responsible for the creation of entity ‘B’ that possesses some level of authority, does it necessarily follow that entity ‘A’ has a greated level of authority than entity ‘B’.

So many interesting questions, so little time and energy.
The Church’s authority came/comes from Christ not the NT.
Of course this begs the question the question on how do I know what authority Jesus Christ has given this church as opposed to how much is unfounded claims?

And it begs the question on how do I know that this church must exist in one and only one organization. When I look in my yellow pages of my rather small county I see about 20 different organizations under the category “Christian”. Why should I assume that one and only one of these organizations can be “The church” that God gives special benes to while the remaining organizations are of somewhat inferior status.

And it also begs the question as to whether all of the authority possessed by this apostolic church even exists today, either in one organization or distributed amongst many organizations. If so, then (with apologies to Benny Hinn) why don’t we see anybody possessing the gifts of healing to the level of apostolic authority (healing upon command with 100% accuracy)?
Now that is biblically true.
Now this sort of begs the whole issue of “the clarity of Scripture” issue and how much the passages that you claim support your position a person of good will can disagree with you and still make sense.
So, the whole question of authority rests on these facts.
And this sort of begs the question of clarity of history issue. There is one guy here (I think his name is Edwin) that seems very well versed in history but might (since he is not Catholic) have a different opinion on.

Again…so many interesting issues…so little time and energy.
The idea that the Bible is the final authority is not biblically true.
Actually I was very careful with the words I chose because I know that I have neither time nor energy for the issue of authority/role of the Bible and authority/role of church (much less whether “church” must exist in only one organization.
 
So much I could respond to…so little time and energy…so I will be very selective…

This of course assumes that the organization that calls itself Catholic is the sole legitimate heir of the apostolic church that calls itself Catholic. That is a topic of itself.
History and the Bible say so, not I. However, the Church does not claim that it is the sole possessor of the truth and never did. That is an assumption non-Catholics make who don’t know better–not meaning that in a pejorative sense. 🙂
And it really begs the question on how much credit is appropriate to give an organization concerning the positive activities of its members…while at the same time you have the other question on how much blame should the the organization receive concerning the negative activities of its members.
The Church’s infallibility has nothing to do with the fallibility of its members. It’s infallibility comes from the Holy Spirit.
And it really begs the question on how much of the process that produced what we know as the Bible was God, how much was man, and how much was organization.
Funny that you trust the Bible, then. If it is the word of God then it must be trusted, if not, no. Of course, the Bible doesn’t speak for itself it needs an infallible interpreter, which is what the Church is. Why? Because it was given that authority by Christ.
You see the statement
"Persons ‘A’ who are a part of organization ‘B’ are partially responsible for the creation of entity ‘C’
is not the same as statement
"Organization ‘B’ and members of organization ‘B’ are responsible for the creation of entity ‘C’ "
No. It’s organization ‘A’ writing and compiling its own witness and words which is entity ‘B’.
And it calls into question on whether the following is legitimate logic anyway: If entity ‘A’ is partially responsible for the creation of entity ‘B’ that possesses some level of authority, does it necessarily follow that entity ‘A’ has a greated level of authority than entity ‘B’.
It does because entity ‘A’ are persons and entity ‘B’ is an object. Authority does not lie in objects but in people. It’s why, although the USA has a constitution, it also has a supreme court which interprets it.
So many interesting questions, so little time and energy.
We have enough time and energy when the questions are so very important, yes? 😉
Of course this begs the question the question on how do I know what authority Jesus Christ has given this church as opposed to how much is unfounded claims?
Deduce when the Church can speak with authority on matters of faith and morals and when it can’t and you’ll have answered your question.
And it begs the question on how do I know that this church must exist in one and only one organization. When I look in my yellow pages of my rather small county I see about 20 different organizations under the category “Christian”. Why should I assume that one and only one of these organizations can be “The church” that God gives special benes to while the remaining organizations are of somewhat inferior status.
Because Christ founded his Church, not churches, and prayed that we all be one. Whatever Christ wants, Christ gets.
And it also begs the question as to whether all of the authority possessed by this apostolic church even exists today, either in one organization or distributed amongst many organizations. If so, then (with apologies to Benny Hinn) why don’t we see anybody possessing the gifts of healing to the level of apostolic authority (healing upon command with 100% accuracy)?
But we do see the gifts in the Catholic Church. You simply haven’t been reading the right periodicals.
Now this sort of begs the whole issue of “the clarity of Scripture” issue and how much the passages that you claim support your position a person of good will can disagree with you and still make sense.
As I stated before, the Bible is not a prooftext, but a witness. Witnesses don’t prove anything, they only testify to what they observe/know. The NT is not the sum of what we know about the early Church and its organization. We have the Church Fathers for that. You should read them.
And this sort of begs the question of clarity of history issue. There is one guy here (I think his name is Edwin) that seems very well versed in history but might (since he is not Catholic) have a different opinion on.
Edwin is very knowledgeable, but he’s not the Holy Spirit nor did Christ give him any authority to speak for him (or me or you, either for that matter).
Again…so many interesting issues…so little time and energy.
Actually I was very careful with the words I chose because I know that I have neither time nor energy for the issue of authority/role of the Bible and authority/role of church (much less whether “church” must exist in only one organization.
I will not doubt your own words as to your motive. I don’t know what’s in your heart and mind. That’s strictly between you and God. 🙂
 
I suppose that you are referring to Romans 3. “All have sinned.”
When we look at the whole of Scripture, we notice that there is none other than Jesus Christ who is ever described as having no sin. Therefore, by explicit statements of this sort, Jesus Christ is necessarily excluded from the “all.” However, in the Scripture, Mary is never said to be without sin, nor is anyone else, so she and everybody else is necessarily included in the “all.”
And where does scripture teach everything must be taught explicitly? Did Jesus explicitly define the Trinity?
Also, a closer look at the text will be most instructive. The actual passage teaches that all have sinned and that there are no exceptions but God himself. The passage sets up the argument by way of comparing the whole of mankind over against God himself.
“All have sinned and fall short of the glory of God.”
No exceptions? No offense,but that comment alone makes you the sole judge of the truth. It WAS not possible for God to prevent Mary from being stained by original sin? Why cannot God spare one person?
 
Status
Not open for further replies.
Back
Top