Mary did not have sin

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From your quote:

[SIGN]But Eve was disobedient; for she did not obey when as yet she was a virgin. And even as she, having indeed a husband, Adam, but being nevertheless as yet a virgin (for in Paradise ‘they were both naked, and were not ashamed,’ Genesis 2:25 inasmuch as they, having been created a short time previously, had no understanding of the procreation of children: for it was necessary that they should first come to adult age, and then multiply from that time onward),[/SIGN]
This doesn’t make sense according to the Genesis account.

Gen 2:23 And Adam said: “This is now bone of my bones And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.”
24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.

and …

Gen 3:16 ¶ To the woman He said: “I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception; In pain you shall bring forth children; Your desire shall be for your husband, And he shall rule over you.”

It would appear from the Gen 2 verses that Adam and Eve were intimate before the fall. And from the Gen 3 verse it would appear Eve understood about child bearing enough for God to tell her what He did. These veres seem to contradict the point from the article you posted.
 
This doesn’t make sense according to the Genesis account.

Gen 2:23 And Adam said: “This is now bone of my bones And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.”
24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.

and …

Gen 3:16 ¶ To the woman He said: “I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception; In pain you shall bring forth children; Your desire shall be for your husband, And he shall rule over you.”

It would appear from the Gen 2 verses that Adam and Eve were intimate before the fall. And from the Gen 3 verse it would appear Eve understood about child bearing enough for God to tell her what He did. These veres seem to contradict the point from the article you posted.
Dokimas,

Intimate before the fall? Why do you say this? I don’t see how that has to be just from the text. And Gen 3:16 is after the fall. Also, that was a quote from St. Irenaeus’ Against Heresies.
 
The RCC does not teach Mary’s parents were sinless. And? Please stick to the issue,Mary,not her parents.
I am sticking to the issue. Mary’s parents are necessarily a part of this issue. Because you seem to believe that God cannot cause perfection to be conceived by a sinner. In fact, earlier, you called that idea “absurd” and “contradictory,” remember?
God had a SINNER conceive PERFECTION? Is it me or is that belief ABSURD and contradictory?
So then here is my question: If Mary’s parents were sinners, and Mary was sinless, then how does your logic follow? How can God have sinners [Mary’s parents] conceive perfection [the sinless mother of God] ?? Don’t you see that it is your belief which is contradictory?
LOL Contradictory in my beliefs? Hate to rain on your parade,but your belief is novel to the ancient church. Take the time to read church history and acknowledge how contradictory your position is to ancient Christianity.
Actually, it is your position that is contrary to the early church. Augustine himself taught that no person born of natural procreation (“of a man and a woman”) is free from sin. With the exception of Christ alone, everyone since Adam and Eve were born in this way, including Mary. He called the immaculate birth of Jesus a “novelty” and this could not be the case, if only a generation earlier his mother had experienced conception and birth apart from sin.

“It is therefore an observed and settled fact, that no man born of a man and a woman, that is, by means of their bodily union, is seen to be free from sin. Whosoever, indeed, is free from sin, is free also from a conception and birth of this kind. Moreover, when expounding the Gospel according to Luke, he says: It was no cohabitation with a husband which opened the secrets of the Virgin’s womb; rather was it the Holy Ghost which infused immaculate seed into her unviolated womb. For the Lord Jesus alone of those who are born of woman is holy, inasmuch as He experienced not the contact of earthly corruption, by reason of the novelty of His immaculate birth; nay, He repelled it by His heavenly majesty.” (Augustine, A Treatise on the Grace of Christ, and on Original Sin).

The truth of the matter is thus: Mary was blessed, but not sinless. Christ himself is the only one who, as Augustine said, was not conceived by means of the bodily union of a man and a woman, and therefore it is him alone who is “holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners” (Heb. 7:26). I hope that you will come to know the truth as it is in Jesus. 👍
 
St. Augustine also wrote:

“We must except the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honour to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin. 1 John 3:5 Well, then, if, with this exception of the Virgin, we could only assemble together all the forementioned holy men and women, and ask them whether they lived without sin while they were in this life, what can we suppose would be their answer? Would it be in the language of our author, or in the words of the Apostle John? I put it to you, whether, on having such a question submitted to them, however excellent might have been their sanctity in this body, they would not have exclaimed with one voice: ‘If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us?’ 1 John 1:8 But perhaps this their answer would have been more humble than true! Well, but our author has already determined, and rightly determined, ‘not to place the praise of humility on the side of falsehood.’ If, therefore, they spoke the truth in giving such an answer, they would have sin, and since they humbly acknowledged it, the truth would be in them; but if they lied in their answer, they would still have sin, because the truth would not be in them.” (On Nature and Grace, Ch. 42.) (newadvent.org/fathers/1503.htm) (accessed 6/ 19/ 10.)

Granted, I think, your citation was written later than mine. But, it would seem to me that either:

a) he changed his stance a bit on Mary

or

b) St. Augustine is not saying what you think he is.

Either way, the Catholic Church does not claim that any one of the fathers is infallible in all they wrote. Nor does the Catholic Church run the statistics on the fathers and decide things by a strict majority. If that were the case, as one Catholic apologist wisely pointed out, we would all be Arians.:eek:

Question: Why do the Eastern Orthodox and Catholics, both to this day, teach that the Virgin Mary did not sin?

Also, in the opinions of the posters who claim that “all have sinned” with no exception but Christ Himself, is a two day old baby capable of comitting an act of personal sin?
 
St. Augustine also wrote:

“We must except the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom I wish to raise no question when it touches the subject of sins, out of honour to the Lord; for from Him we know what abundance of grace for overcoming sin in every particular was conferred upon her who had the merit to conceive and bear Him who undoubtedly had no sin. 1 John 3:5 Well, then, if, with this exception of the Virgin, we could only assemble together all the forementioned holy men and women, and ask them whether they lived without sin while they were in this life, what can we suppose would be their answer? Would it be in the language of our author, or in the words of the Apostle John? I put it to you, whether, on having such a question submitted to them, however excellent might have been their sanctity in this body, they would not have exclaimed with one voice: ‘If we say we have no sin, we deceive ourselves, and the truth is not in us?’ 1 John 1:8 But perhaps this their answer would have been more humble than true! Well, but our author has already determined, and rightly determined, ‘not to place the praise of humility on the side of falsehood.’ If, therefore, they spoke the truth in giving such an answer, they would have sin, and since they humbly acknowledged it, the truth would be in them; but if they lied in their answer, they would still have sin, because the truth would not be in them.” (On Nature and Grace, Ch. 42.) (newadvent.org/fathers/1503.htm) (accessed 6/ 19/ 10.)
Umm . . . can you highlight the part where he said anything about Mary’s conception or birth, and that she was without sin?
 
The thing that St. Augustine seems to be allowing the Virgin Mary an exception for is having sinned. Conside the title of Ch. 42 from which this quote comes:

“Chapter 42 [XXXVI.]— The Blessed Virgin Mary May Have Lived Without Sin. None of the Saints Besides Her Without Sin” (newadvent.org/fathers/1503.htm) (accessed 6/ 19/ 10)
 
Dokimas,

Intimate before the fall? Why do you say this? I don’t see how that has to be just from the text. And Gen 3:16 is after the fall. Also, that was a quote from St. Irenaeus’ Against Heresies.
This doesn’t make sense according to the Genesis account.

Gen 2:23 And Adam said: “This is now bone of my bones And flesh of my flesh; She shall be called Woman, Because she was taken out of Man.”
24 Therefore a man shall leave his father and mother and be joined to his wife, and they shall become one flesh.
25 And they were both naked, the man and his wife, and were not ashamed.

and …

Gen 3:16 ¶ To the woman He said: “I will greatly multiply your sorrow and your conception; In pain you shall bring forth children; Your desire shall be for your husband, And he shall rule over you.”

It would appear from the Gen 2 verses that Adam and Eve were intimate before the fall. And from the Gen 3 verse it would appear Eve understood about child bearing enough for God to tell her what He did. These veres seem to contradict the point from the article you posted.

Yes I know Gen 3 is after the fall. Eve knew about bearing children so God was able to make His statement to her because of her knowledge. The post I was responding to basically said she didn’t know about that stuff before the fall. Seems that’s not what we can see in Gen 3:16.
I highlighted the phrases that most likely has to do with Adam and Eve having sexual relations before the fall.
 
The thing that St. Augustine seems to be allowing the Virgin Mary an exception for is having sinned. Conside the title of Ch. 42 from which this quote comes:

“Chapter 42 [XXXVI.]— The Blessed Virgin Mary May Have Lived Without Sin. None of the Saints Besides Her Without Sin” (newadvent.org/fathers/1503.htm) (accessed 6/ 19/ 10)
So it wasn’t a specific teaching before Augustine? He didn’t seem sure that she was sinless.
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
The RCC does not teach Mary’s parents were sinless. And? Please stick to the issue,Mary,not her parents.
I am sticking to the issue. Mary’s parents are necessarily a part of this issue. Because you seem to believe that God cannot cause perfection to be conceived by a sinner. In fact, earlier, you called that idea “absurd” and “contradictory,” remember?
No they are not part of the issue. You mean God cannot separate Mary from the rest of humanity? Accoding to you apparently not!

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
God had a SINNER conceive PERFECTION? Is it me or is that belief ABSURD and contradictory?
So then here is my question: If Mary’s parents were sinners, and Mary was sinless, then how does your logic follow? How can God have sinners [Mary’s parents] conceive perfection [the sinless mother of God] ?? Don’t you see that it is your belief which is contradictory?
And God is not capable of allowing Mary to be born without sin,even her parents were sinners? Why do you place limts on God?

Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
LOL Contradictory in my beliefs? Hate to rain on your parade,but your belief is novel to the ancient church. Take the time to read church history and acknowledge how contradictory your position is to ancient Christianity.
Actually, it is your position that is contrary to the early church. Augustine himself taught that no person born of natural procreation (“of a man and a woman”) is free from sin. With the exception of Christ alone, everyone since Adam and Eve were born in this way, including Mary. He called the immaculate birth of Jesus a “novelty” and this could not be the case, if only a generation earlier his mother had experienced conception and birth apart from sin.
WRONG! I do not thnink so! My position is EXACTLY what the early church taught. As for Augustine? Then explain the following:

“Having excepted the holy Virgin Mary, concerning whom, on account of the honor of the Lord, I wish to have absolutely no question when treating of sins—for how do we know what abundance of grace for the total overcoming of sin was conferred upon her, who merited to conceive and bear him in whom there was no sin?—so, I say, with the exception of the Virgin, if we could have gathered together all those holy men and women, when they were living here, and had asked them whether they were without sin, what do we suppose would have been their answer?” (Nature and Grace 36:42 [A.D. 415]).
“It is therefore an observed and settled fact, that no man born of a man and a woman, that is, by means of their bodily union, is seen to be free from sin. Whosoever, indeed, is free from sin, is free also from a conception and birth of this kind. Moreover, when expounding the Gospel according to Luke, he says: It was no cohabitation with a husband which opened the secrets of the Virgin’s womb; rather was it the Holy Ghost which infused immaculate seed into her unviolated womb. For the Lord Jesus alone of those who are born of woman is holy, inasmuch as He experienced not the contact of earthly corruption, by reason of the novelty of His immaculate birth; nay, He repelled it by His heavenly majesty.” (Augustine, A Treatise on the Grace of Christ, and on Original Sin).
The truth of the matter is thus: Mary was blessed, but not sinless. Christ himself is the only one who, as Augustine said, was not conceived by means of the bodily union of a man and a woman, and therefore it is him alone who is “holy, harmless, undefiled, separate from sinners” (Heb. 7:26). I hope that you will come to know the truth as it is in Jesus.
U-huh…and look at what Augustine has to say as well

“Our Lord . . . was not averse to males, for he took the form of a male, nor to females, for of a female he was born. Besides, there is a great mystery here: that just as death comes to us through a woman, life is born to us through a woman; that the devil, defeated, would be tormented by each nature, feminine and masculine, as he had taken delight in the defection of both” (Christian Combat 22:24 [A.D. 396]).

“That one woman is both mother and virgin, not in spirit only but even in body. In spirit she is mother, not of our head, who is our Savior himself—of whom all, even she herself, are rightly called children of the bridegroom—but plainly she is the mother of us who are his members, because by love she has cooperated so that the faithful, who are the members of that head, might be born in the Church. In body, indeed, she is the Mother of that very head” (Holy Virginity 6:6 [A.D. 401]).

Sorry,but you dead wrong and your belief is novel,accept the truth.
 
Umm . . . can you highlight the part where he said anything about Mary’s conception or birth, and that she was without sin?
Uuumm…and can you highlight the part where he said God’s plan was to have a sinner conceive His sinless Son?

Sorry,but you are not going to win this argument. Your belief is novel and you simply cannot admit it.
 
Uuumm…and can you highlight the part where he said God’s plan was to have a sinner conceive His sinless Son?

Sorry,but you are not going to win this argument. Your belief is novel and you simply cannot admit it.
The reason an this argument won’t be won with you is because you are afraid that if you are wrong, then your church is not 100% correct. Then what will you do? You are afraid to find out that your church is not perfect. I have no such expectations except for Jesus. I know I’ll be incorrect at times; on non essentials, it’s not a big to have various understandings.

BTW, your post above is full of contradictions. You can’t see it. This makes it less hard for you to see the truth presented by those with a different understanding.
 
Dokimas,

I gave you 3 example pre-Augustine. Going to run but I’ll get back to Gen ch. 2. As of yet I don’t see it explicitly stating in the text the conclusion that you seem to draw from what it does actually say. The author of Genesis makes the comment about the 2 becoming one.

In any event, it seems that you are taking me off on a rabbit trail in an attempt to discredit St. Irenaeus. Does he not teach that Mary is the New Eve?
 
The reason an this argument won’t be won with you is because you are afraid that if you are wrong, then your church is not 100% correct. Then what will you do? You are afraid to find out that your church is not perfect. I have no such expectations except for Jesus. I know I’ll be incorrect at times; on non essentials, it’s not a big to have various understandings.

BTW, your post above is full of contradictions. You can’t see it. This makes it less hard for you to see the truth presented by those with a different understanding.
Afraid? YEP! Look at your reply,it says it all. I have no need to win on my own,early church is the one winning. I have NOTHING to be afraid. Why would I? Plenty of history from the early church rebuking the followers of "johnny-come-lately’ man-made churches.

BTW: Contradictions? Not my belief,but yours is so full of contradictions that even the early church fathers teachings conflict with your novel beliefs.

As for the RCC being perfect? We are not even discussing the church being perfect,so why even mention it?
 
Dokimas,

I gave you 3 example pre-Augustine. Going to run but I’ll get back to Gen ch. 2. As of yet I don’t see it explicitly stating in the text the conclusion that you seem to draw from what it does actually say. The author of Genesis makes the comment about the 2 becoming one.

In any event, it seems that you are taking me off on a rabbit trail in an attempt to discredit St. Irenaeus. Does he not teach that Mary is the New Eve?
I’m not trying to discredit anyone. I try to understand what is said and then examine it in light of the Bible. What was said, if I understood it, was not what I understand from the Bible, include Mary being the new Eve. Jesus is the Second Adam. If Mary is the new Eve would that make Mary and Jesus married? Of course not, which makes me question the understanding.

Let’s look at the Gen 2 verses in light of the NT understanding of ‘joined to his wife’ and ‘one flesh’.

From Jesus:

Mt 19:6 “So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”
Mr 10:9 “Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

1Co 6:16 Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For “the two,” He says, “shall become one flesh.”

Seems clearly that the subject is sexual realtions: God given to Adam and Eve, God given to husbands and wives; devil destortion with harlots.
 
BTW: Contradictions? Not my belief,but yours is so full of contradictions that even the early church fathers teachings conflict with your novel beliefs.
I’m sure the person you spoke the post in question to will point out your contradictions. Just giving you a heads up.
As for the RCC being perfect? We are not even discussing the church being perfect,so why even mention it?
Which of the teachings of the CC (which is it, CC or RCC?) is less than perfect? Aren’t you telling us your understanding, which you get from the CC/RCC and that’s why it’s correct?
 
I’m not trying to discredit anyone. I try to understand what is said and then examine it in light of the Bible. What was said, if I understood it, was not what I understand from the Bible, include Mary being the new Eve. Jesus is the Second Adam. If Mary is the new Eve would that make Mary and Jesus married? Of course not, which makes me question the understanding.

Let’s look at the Gen 2 verses in light of the NT understanding of ‘joined to his wife’ and ‘one flesh’.

From Jesus:

Mt 19:6 “So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”
Mr 10:9 “Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate.”

1Co 6:16 Or do you not know that he who is joined to a harlot is one body with her? For “the two,” He says, “shall become one flesh.”

Seems clearly that the subject is sexual realtions: God given to Adam and Eve, God given to husbands and wives; devil destortion with harlots.
Dokimas,

forgive me for attributing wrong motives and if I was uncharitable.

I am not denying that the 2 becoming 1 flesh at least includes sexual relations, what I am saying is that the (human) author, who I believe is Moses, is saying that part and we have no idea whether or not Adam and Eve understood that right away from the text alone IMO.
 
The thing that St. Augustine seems to be allowing the Virgin Mary an exception for is having sinned. Consider the title of Ch. 42 from which this quote comes: “Chapter 42 [XXXVI.]— The Blessed Virgin Mary May Have Lived Without Sin. None of the Saints Besides Her Without Sin” (newadvent.org/fathers/1503.htm) (accessed 6/ 19/ 10)
The only thing that Augustine proves for me is that at the first, he may have considered the idea that Mary did not sin, and then later he abandoned the whole concept. Please go and re-read his position on original sin . . . Christ alone is excepted.

Also, if Augustine was only considering that Mary “may have lived without sin” then it is no proof of yours to claim that the ancient church held to this doctrine. Obviously it was not universally held, nor was it even certain. But if it was handed down by oral tradition, which is supposedly equal to the Scriptures, then why would Augustine not simply teach it dogmatically? And why would he later change his position?
Also, in the opinions of the posters who claim that “all have sinned” with no exception but Christ Himself, is a two day old baby capable of comitting an act of personal sin?
The passage refers to original sin, that is why it is in the past tense, “all have sinned” and that is equivilant to saying that all have sinned “in Adam” and are therefore born constituted as sinners, who are guilty of falling short of the glory of God. The Bible tells us that we are all “by nature the children of wrath.” I am sure that your mind is not used to submitting to the force of God’s infallible word, but nevertheless, the Scriptures cannot be broken. 😉
 
Dokimas,

forgive me for attributing wrong motives and if I was uncharitable.

I am not denying that the 2 becoming 1 flesh at least includes sexual relations, what I am saying is that the (human) author, who I believe is Moses, is saying that part and we have no idea whether or not Adam and Eve understood that right away from the text alone IMO.
No problem. Thank you.

What do you think was Jesus’ understanding when He quoted it?
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
BTW: Contradictions? Not my belief,but yours is so full of contradictions that even the early church fathers teachings conflict with your novel beliefs.
I’m sure the person you spoke the post in question to will point out your contradictions. Just giving you a heads up.
He or she can point them out all day long,but will not make a difference as to what history testifies.That is his or her misunderstandings,not mine.Again,I am not the first person to come up with such a belief;moreoever, I am giving the same belief of the early church and that is what bugs him or her.

Quote:
As for the RCC being perfect? We are not even discussing the church being perfect,so why even mention it?
Which of the teachings of the CC (which is it, CC or RCC?) is less than perfect? Aren’t you telling us your understanding, which you get from the CC/RCC and that’s why it’s correct?
But the issue here is about Mary,not perfection so why do you keep on mentioning it?
 
Quote:
Originally Posted by Nicea325
BTW: Contradictions? Not my belief,but yours is so full of contradictions that even the early church fathers teachings conflict with your novel beliefs.
Thanks for your opinion.
He or she can point them out all day long,but will not make a difference as to what history testifies.That is his or her misunderstandings,not mine.Again,I am not the first person to come up with such a belief;moreoever, I am giving the same belief of the early church and that is what bugs him or her.
The contradictions are yours not history’s.
As for the RCC being perfect? We are not even discussing the church being perfect,so why even mention it?
I’ve forgotten the context. If you go back and trace it through, maybe you’ll understand.

But the issue here is about Mary,not perfection so why do you keep on mentioning it?
 
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